I've talked to her on the phone before and she said she didn't pay yet because she had no hot water in the house (later I found out this was because she didn't pay her gas bill).

Okay maybe a few bucks for marketing materials and gas...

We got a 2009 Honda Fit Sport that uses half the gas.

In this case, however, where the tenant doesn't have the direct consequences of not paying (like electric/gas or phone/cable) and the consequences are a lien on the property and not a collection against the tenant, the LL/owner just has to pay, whether they bill the tenant or include it in the rent.

Originally posted by Jason Trepins: I believe in evolution but that doesn't mean there isn't another DIMENSION that we just can't comprehend And if you believe in the validity of string theory, there are actually 8 other dimensions (besides our 3) that we can't comprehend

For example, the option might state it is valid only so long as the rent is always paid on time.

Still need to get expenses, but owner pays for gas, electric etc.

Is there any valid reason for changing the zoning to residential if it is not necessary for the intended use?

How should I send this to them that would prove I sent the earnest money making it a valid contract?

In addition, I would never buy a property if the landlord pays the utilities (especially gas and electric).