(assume that I'd be able to get qualified for the loan and that it would be "reasonable" to be able to pay back the 40K in the time specified)after re-reading, i assume the investor would need to be a lienholder from the beginner under any circumstance...but is that even possible, or would I have to buy the house "with" the investor, which i'd rather not do...also, do not dwell upon the legal details of the arrangement, i have people that I could do this with on a verbal contract not to mention a seperate written contract that protected their investment+interest in the event I sold the property for a gain...I'm much more concerned about the actual numbers/percentages and how realistic this proposition is from an investment standpoint, not a legal one..

I didn't go through the IRS link as that was not really my issue, I assumed you were correct in the matter tax wise, maybe I should have to see how they treated the depreciation by an entity not in title and passing through to the beneficiary.....ours are the other way around.

Right, Im assuming they are "double closing" on these properties if they find a buyer.

I had a debt collection company (a single member LLC) that wasn't making enough profit to warrant its continuation.In any case, assuming I had my last house for 2+ years, you're saying that two exclusions within 2 years is possible in some cases?

However; usually when you act as your own general, and permits are in your name, you are assuming all liability for work being done.

Does it matter if you split profits 50/50 - I assume no because the equity position is what matters right?

So if they say "Oh, I could get you $150,000" I'd assume less than that.

I assume JBLM or Fairchild?

I assume getting him to sign a new lease would be my first priority.

I've heard people here says locally 36 months is about what you should assume for security deposit purposes (i.e., if the carpet is three years old, don't try to charge for its replacement.