As @Chris Seveney rightly points out, if we have a UPB of $1.04m and a property value of $2.0 the borrower should have some capacity to sell the property or potentially refinance.  

A paying borrower may from time to time have life events that prevent them from paying and may also require advances from a Mortgagee.  

Borrowers have the option to pay the fee upfront, or can include the fee into their monthly mortgage payment."

Either way in that situation you make your goal.I had a lender one time tell me they underwrite 50% opex regardless of sellers numbers because if they take it back from the borrower because of default they will not be managing themselves and they also could not run it as efficiently as the previous owner who sold it to their borrower.Underwrite conservatively for standard industry practices.I don't buy anything on the if the (everything goes right) scenario because if it doesn't you are up the creek.   

I own a few notes and I am yet to find a lender who will accept an existing performing note as a collateral to borrow money against.  

Hi everyone,So I am starting to get the ball rolling on my next investment and I am trying to gain some information as to what I can expect to be able to borrow with my current situation.

Since you're leveraging the 401k funds before retirement, I would think there are significant tax penalties.I'm curious to hear about how you repaid your 401k and how much you were taxed on the loan.Regards,Steve Essentially, you borrow the money through your company's plan's administrator from your 401(k).  

Those costs must be passed onto the borrower in the wholesale -> retail markup.

You can go on this loan as non-occupying co-borrower. 

We will only do the same 75% LTV as everyone else, but you can bridge the gap using borrowed funds from another source, provided those borrowed funds are secured by real estate other than the subject property.