If i am partnering with someone 50/50 (buy and hold strategy) and we put both of our names on each mortgage does that mean that we are limited to 10 conventionally financed properties combined as opposed to 20 if we were working independently?  

I would think it's easier to start off with purchasing for myself as opposed to providing notes for investors correct?

There are many on this site who have invested in their own properties out of state (as opposed to syndications).

Great walls make great tenants, and that way you'll attract more long term tenants as opposed to a college buddy who's willing to split a room with you for a semester. 

anyone used online sites as opposed to lawyers?

Still, the concept makes sense.Its going to be much easier to get them to seller financing 20% as opposed to 80 or 90%.

However, after countless lunches with real estate agents, property management companies, closing agents, real estate attorneys, project managers (as opposed to GCs), mortgage lenders, hard money lenders, accountants, appraisers, and insurance agents, I feel quite overwhelmed regarding who I should work with.

I am a web developer living in Maryland and looking to invest in my first property very soon, hopefully locally, but I'm not opposed to out of state.

This contract had the earliest time the property could be purchased at 10 months after signing with the down payment and first installment to be paid after signing to validate the purchase agreement.The main difference from the lease with option is being that $3,500 payment would of been for the option to purchase the house, and none refundable and with the option would have been anytime after payment I could start to close and own the house as opposed to having to wait 10 months making those installment payments which $200 monthly is to be credited towards the purchase down payment with the $3,500.Time has come, 10 months has passed and I'm in full nonperformance and as I had a title company prepare this close it was discovered the home is already under a deed of trust and the owner is not the title holder and has given his ownership interest to merc for a $85,000 promise to pay note.This deed has a due on sales clause in place and when they discover this sale, they will speed it up to be due in 30 days or foreclose and I loose all equity?

Is there some transition where my property now becomes considered a fully "rental/investment property" as opposed to a live in primary?