I might not be clearly asking my question, could I essentially opt out of representing myself?

Essentially, the bank makes 1 loan and puts both properties as collateral. 

I saw you say that it's essentially the same as doing a regular assignment of contract, this leads me to wonder. on the deals I do now, where I'm dealing with the owner directly and not heirs, I am able to assign and all costs associated with title get passed along to my buyers. should I be expecting to shell out cash for the title work prior to assigning, and make it up on the backend from my fee? 

Extra backstory: I am currently a young buck living at home with no rent and pretty much no bills to pay besides the living essentials, so being left with 3k to my name isn’t much of a concern.

I might not be clearly asking my question, could I essentially opt out of representing myself?

It is essentially vacant because he retired and other renters left as it went up for sale.

Being active investor essentially entails managing a business.

Extra backstory: I am currently a young buck living at home with no rent and pretty much no bills to pay besides the living essentials, so being left with 3k to my name isn’t much of a concern.

Underwriting will be different depending on the business, for instance how and insurance underwriter mitigates risk will be different than residential multifamily will be different from commercial retail, etc but essentially everyone is doing the same thing: moving and limiting risk. 

I know that changes the numbers if I were to go that route, but if my calculations are correct I could essentially live for free.