I brokered a townhouse development in the early 80s and we gave zero coupon bonds to the buyers as an incentive to buy.. and If I recall the bond held 30 years would mature and have enough that equaled the entire price of the home. 

We always add a metal roof with overhang to any older homes we purchase.

They had signed the lease, but I had held off signing until they paid the upfront move-in costs. 

Based on what you've shared, I don't see how they can be held responsible.

I would say if you do post it be as detailed as possible minus borrower info re: what's the collateral exactly (estimated value, condition, etc), outstanding balance, state where it's held, terms, performing or non, 1st or 2nd position, payment amount and what you're asking price wise.

Hello Kev,Is the property titled to you personally or held by an entity? 

HOWEVER, based on tax advantages, leverage returns, and opportunity cost the buyers may decide to finance anyway.In mortgage states the homeowner owns the home even in theory; the mortgage is a lien clouding title, but title is held by the owner.  

Also, if you and your husband contribute the exchange property into an entity that is considered disregarded for income tax purposes so that it would still be considered as held by you and your husband, then the timing would not matter at all. 

Full metal stairs are always an option but that would completely blow the budget which already has a razor thin margin. 

That means real estate held for investment purposes must be exchanged for real estate held for investment purposes.