One sale does not make a market but thanks Grandma for the deal anyway.

I think there is the requirement that the sales are arms length transactions which the last leg would not be. 

Your financials are too tight to not have predictable cash flows on this property.You also could lose the home sale exclusion if you convert your former residence to a rental.  

.#3 Hidden costs:   Even if you sell your property at a higher sale price than when you bought it, agent fees, repair fees, capex fees eat away at your profits.  

Hence this post.I could use some advice on where to find good data on the present market conditions, particularly recent sale information on single family homes in my area with a description of the product. 

In the meantime I am looking for investment SFR's in the 85-125 range in which to use the remainder of my capital from my first sale as a down payment.

“Special tax breaks and loopholes in a corrupt tax code enable billionaires and powerful corporations to avoid paying their fair share of taxes while sticking the burden on the middle class,” Sanders said.

Looking at the Fannie Mae website, I found the following requirements:Cash-out refinance transactions must meet the following requirements: The transaction must be used to pay off existing mortgages by obtaining a new first mortgage secured by the same property or be a new mortgage on a property that does not have a mortgage lien against it.Properties listed for sale in the six months preceding the disbursement date of the new mortgage loan are limited to 70% LTV, CLTV, and HCLTV ratios (or less if mandated by the specific product, occupancy, or property type – for example, 65% for manufactured homes).Note: Properties that were listed for sale must have been taken off the market on or before the disbursement date of the new mortgage loan.The property must have been purchased (or acquired) by the borrower at least six months prior to the disbursement date of the new mortgage loan except for the following: There is no waiting period if the lender documents that the borrower acquired the property through an inheritance or was legally awarded the property (divorce, separation, or dissolution of a domestic partnership).

The power of the MLS is just that.

For my own curiosity, can you explain why the lien would need to be cleared up by the seller before the sale?