You really need to go read through the Wholesaling Forum to get an idea of what you need to know about the whole process.To answer your specific questions, yes, you can do it without a loan by either assigning the contract or double closing, and, yes, it is legal in California and in Texas.To reiterate my first point, you really need to go read through the Wholesaling Forum to get an idea of what you need to know about the whole process.The type of financing your "investor" is using to buy the property with will make a big difference on whether you will be able to wholesale it to him.

It's about the portfolio as a whole, not its individual parts.

A specific example is metro Portland OR where whole sections of the city were forced to hook up as the EPA was coming down on the city.

I later found that Bigger Pockets had a list for the top 20 blogs and the blogs I was checking out were winners.http://www.biggerpockets.com/renewsblog/2010/06/28/the-top-20-real-estate-investing-blogs/Some of the blogs go really in depth with the process of buying property, number crunching, reading the market and the whole nine.

He threw in a few freebies too and the whole thing was only $200.

i am curently looking at a home....its been on the market for over a year the bank recently foreclosed on it, there tring to get rid of it for 150k and its worth 180k (as is)... 210k is the arv.... i have a buyer that this is the area were he wants to buy hes a handy man seeking a whole sale deal, somthing he knows he can fix up....anyways hes got financing ready for up to 170k the question i have is it possible to still do the deal with a conventional loan??

The whole thing could lead to criminal charges.The reason i say lease it for 6 months, this will let the owner know that you want the property to make some money.

The whole question is at what price.

Just the competition factor is enough to scare away most investors, and lets not forget funding for the whole process.

The price achieved at auction?