Buying subject-to existing loans is a practical way to buy property, especially if the seller is financially distressed.

Original purchase is documented by a HUD-1, which confirms that no mortgagefinancing was used to obtain the subject property.

In my head what I had pictured was getting ownership of a multi-unit property creatively, through seller financing, subject to, or even lease option, and again renting out the space i wasn't using and trying to break even or make little profit with the rent income on the mortgage payments.

I mentioned it because it's a subject that comes up a lot on these forums.And you're probably right about your tenant- it sounds like he would for sure be the one you'd want to have gone.

I just listened to Grant's podcast about buying subject to.

Purchase Price.The total purchase price to be paid by buyer will be $____________________ payable as follows:Non-refundable earnest money deposit $____________________Balance due at closing $____________________ Sale price is subject to approval by Buyer and Partners of Buyer as well and conditioned on the property appraising at or above the above referenced Purchase Price.3.

My question, and I know the answer is subjective, but how long do you accumulate that 50% and what would someone consider the upper threshold to stop putting that portion away and start counting it as profit?

What happens if you buy a property subject to the existing loan then the seller dies?

Louis, MO.Is there anyone out in that area who can help with trying to figure out the value of the subject property?

The subject of ARM versus fixed is a good thing to discuss. 5 years from now is basically guaranteed (>99.9%) chance to be a better financial time for me than now.