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Results (3,809+)
Will Barnard Rehab estimating as a new wholesaler
19 January 2011 | 13 replies
When you add in things like rewiring, replumbing, roof replacement, HVAC replacement, siding replacement, replacing all windows/doors, replacing cabinets, replacing tubs/showers, etc, things tend to get much more expensive, even in lower-cost rehabs and areas where labor is cheap.Personally, I'd use $15/sf for a full interior cosmetic rehab, but for a *full rehab* (including all the stuff listed above), my numbers are closer to $30/sf.That said, as a rehabber, you probably want to be much more precise than just a price per square foot...as a wholesaler, this *may* be good enough, but it's still important to know when a rehab will be $15/sf versus $20/sf...on a 2000 sf rehab, that's a difference of $10K.
Bob Shome lack of suitable properties
9 October 2012 | 14 replies
Since when did internet forums become so precise and picky, surely you could have interpreted that I did not literally mean "all".I am not certain the second part of your question.
Paul C. Longtime Landlords: All it's cracked up to be?
4 December 2013 | 30 replies
That would be precisely the time when I would most want that rental income.Do you feel investing in Detroit was still profitable for you overall?
Seth B. Is my cash flow really $135.75/month?
9 February 2015 | 51 replies
Calculations that are 'precise' are not necessarily better!
Wendell De Guzman Real Life of a Private Lender
9 July 2017 | 68 replies
Actually, to be more precise, we look at the LOAN TO VALUE first.
Scott Pigman Does John T Reed's formula for positive cash flow make sense?
20 August 2016 | 5 replies
I'm wondering if anyone here can explain the reasoning and comment on the formula's validity.He says, "The precise formula is that your loan-to-value ratio multiplied by your annual constant must be lower than your cap rate to get positive cash flow"so that's,LTV * C < CapRate --> positive cash flow(C = Annual constant)He goes on to define the terms like so,LTV = Loan/ValueC = (annual payments) / (loan balance)Cap rate = NOI / Price NOI (Net operating income) = income - expensesIf you do some algebra you can restate the formula as,(loan/value) * (price / loan balance) * annual payments < NOI --> positive cash flowBeing somewhat simple minded I would have thought that the formula for positive cash flow would be simply,annual payments < NOI --> positive cash flowBut I don't understand the multipliers on the left side,(loan/value) * (price/balance)Can anyone explain to me why they should be considered?
Chris Skjolsvik Feedback wanted on my first SFH flip analysis
2 August 2014 | 7 replies
Admittedly the breakdown isn't ultra precise as I wanted to see if we were even in the ballpark before getting much more detailed. 
Chris E. Toledo vs. Detroit ?
18 January 2016 | 29 replies
Ryan - that's precisely why I would never accept investor capital from out of the area to invest in Lima.
Daniel Ramirez Recession Resistant Properties
3 October 2016 | 15 replies
Hello BP Community - Precise market timing is impossible or at the very least extremely-difficult to attain (otherwise we would all be multi-millionaires/billionaires).
Lawanda Curtiss Characteristics of a Good Lender????
29 May 2017 | 8 replies
The more information you give and the more precise it is, the more accurate quotes you can get.