Even though this happened without the home ever being in my name personally and before any involvement by my IRA, I'm worried about whether this would cause the IRS to disqualify my IRA.Ideally what I would like to do is use a small ($10-15k) Roth IRA to lease the house from him and re-let it to a renter, without purchasing the home but retaining the option to at a later date.

Really the only advice at this point is to retain a good lawyer and get the process going of getting this guy evicted.

How smart is he to not only NOT retain an attorney but also never show up to any of the court proceedings.

The late fee is also retained by the PM, JWB, so to me, the PM, JWB, kinda encourages the tenant to consistently pay rent late.

The very dumbed down version of it is you apply for the tax credits with an HFA, build the project, sell the tax credits to a bank or a LIHTC syndication fund, and you retain .01% ownership.

First, since mortgage interest and property taxes now have limited deductibility, would it make more sense to incorporate, even in a pass thru, to retain that deductibility? 

If you were building from scratch, ideally all the insulation would be on the exterior of the wall assembly -;)We are presently retrofitting a wooden, Italianate building (circa 1878 - 1880) and on this one, I am using rock wool in the wall cavities (R22 where I can strap the inner side of the exterior walls and R14 in the places where I cannot (a long narrow corridor, rooms with elaborate plaster crown moulding we wish to retain).  

Retain an attorney and file for eviction immediately.

I will retain approx. 80% of the original property.

The more we look into the topic, the more misinformation we are finding.Question: Can a person purchase a non-occupied residential property using a conventional/investment mortgage (Non owner occupied, 1-4 units, 25% down) and still retain their eligibility to use an FHA backed mortgage (owner occupied, 1-4 units, ~3.5% down) on another property?