I've been involved in two JV BRRRRs with Land Trust ownership structure, the one we still own happens to have Joe Seagle's company as trustee who replied above.  

Now she is interested in getting involved and is open to a career change.Question: Is there a job she could transition to where she would match her current salary and benefits?

The fact it was missed at closing doesn't mean it just goes away, or that anyone involved will pay it for you.  

It's tough to answer because there are a lot of numbers involved.

I've only experienced this on the buy-side of multifamily acquisitions, but have been involved in transactions where the lender requires a CofO and they have gotten comfortable with just the I-card, when there is no CofO for the property. 

It's been a while since I've involved myself with Bigger Pockets.

A resolution might involve a refinance or buyout agreement to remove her from the mortgage, aligning ownership and liability.This post does not create a CPA-Client relationship.

If not, even though you are a re pro, losses are passive & deductions are limited.There are 7 scenarios that will qualify as material, and you only need to meet one:*500 hours*Substantially all participation*> 100 hrs and at least 1/2*Significant participation*5/10 years*Personal service activity w participation in last 3 years*Continuous participationTo materially participate, you must be involved in the operations of the activity on a regular, continuous, and substantial basis.Once you pass the pro test, the material participation often comes along for the ride.You can elect to aggregate all rental real estate for purposes of measuring material participation under Sec. 1.469-9(g).Your time spent on all your rental properties (STRs don't qualify) counts as one activity, making it easier to materially participate.In order to make a strong case with your CPA and the IRS you need to document your hours.Best practice is an hours log where you are as specific as possible.

Probably 90% of sub to / seller financed transactions involve purchase price ABOVE what an investor would pay having to obtain new institutional financing or paying cash.  

I may be wrong in my understanding of the real estate code of ethics outlined in the Arizona state statutes, and everything else I've read regarding real estate transactions, but as far as I understand it the original agreement to sell is null and void due to the nondiscolure committed by the real estate agent/broker first in the fact that he signed the agreement to sell as the buyer, misrepresentating himself as the agent and stating he had a buyer/investor and Secondly because the agent involved should not sign in representation of the buyer but may only accompany the buyer to the signing (it was done through docusign, I signed first and then was notified that the buyer had signed and downloaded a copy, I didn't look at who the buyer was until just last night).