Thank you again, my friend has already conceded his assumptions were wrong, so now I just want to find the best, yet simplest way to do things.

From what I understand of the process, the key ingredient is getting a title company involved. 

Now, take those 2 ingredients and throw em in a blender and what-da-ya-get?

Then, you find one other person to Fund (which could be a person, a retirement fund, a bank, a hard money lender, etc) and you've got the ingredients to a great partnered deal!

Private money would be the safest and simplest way to go, and I am searching.

If you take the stance that this is a profit motive one could argue that this is the simplest money to earn!

Thanks In the simplest of terms, all things being equal, assuming you aren't carrying debt against that sale of your property, you could count it as income to be used for qualifying on a subsequent purchase however, you would have to show this income on your returns and, you would have to (in most cases) show at least a two year history of it and, a two year stream of it continuing (Your note would satisfy that component).

As I understand it in the simplest terms.

If you are nervous about this you can simple state in the new lease that this one overrides the one dated x

Hands down the best method has also been the simplest of using an average $ per tenant, and factoring that into rent pricing and include it into rents.