If you're looking at a debt service loan, 15% is the minimum for a purchase but it's much more common (and rates are better) at 20-25%. 

Why not use bank debt or alternative lender debt if you don't qualify yet for bank originated debt?

I mean myself and any bank would need more details, but if you utilize that large sum as a downpayment and have a small mortgage, wouldn't you easily qualify for the debt to income?

So is this just as simple as showing how much the property makes or do they also look at personal debt to income, credit score, reserves etc as well.

It always feels good to have no debt, that's for sure.

Quote from @Jimmy Lieu: Quote from @Andrew Syrios: The BRRRR strategy is tough these days (I even wrote an article about it that goes into more detail a little while back: https://www.biggerpockets.com/blog/beyond-brrrr-taking-advan...)In short, high interest rates as well as labor/material costs makes it hard to buy a property with debt and cash flow. 

Eric,, I think why people go for the fund model is the idea that they are spreading their money into multiple notes being held by the company.. while in theory this is great but as you noted you don't really have any security compared to being the beneficiary of the debt instrument IE debt is in your name. 

Lenders do not look at your personal income or debt and will use the current market rent or lease (up to 120% if the lease is significantly higher than market rent or vice versa) as qualifying income.

Did they previous take on bridge debt and has that caused them undo "pain" in the recent years?

I also know I can look at ways of borrowing against that equity (HELOC for example) but I also just feel like if I take debt on that property the cashflow goes down, and then if the association also takes the loan it goes down more, and at that point I don't know why it would be a better option than selling before August.