Suppose the first mortgage holder forecloses, the property is sold at auction, and the mortgagor redeems the property within the redemption period.  

One possible idea: I suppose if the banks sold you the note before the foreclosure sale took place, you could argue that the "holder of a mortgage in default" exception should apply to you as well.

From what I understand, liens don't mean you can't sell the house, it means the lien holder get's paid part of the proceeds to cover the lien.

In my case, it's what's in the holder, plus 2 in the cabinet. 

Chase bank recently requested I add this into the listing agreement (LA) I have with the seller:  "SELLER MAY CANCEL THIS AGREEMENT PRIOR TO THE ENDING DATE OF THE LISTING PERIOD WITHOUT ADVANCE NOTICE TO THE BROKER, AND WITHOUT PAYMENT OF A COMMISSION OR ANY OTHER CONSIDERATION IF THE PROPERTY IS CONVEYED TO THE MORTGAGE INSURER OR THE MORTGAGE HOLDER.

What you are suggesting (no long term partnership) is simplybto have party B step in as a lender in second position where once the loan and interest is paid, then party B is done and party A starts and remains as sole title holder.

In a reverse exchange the qualified intermediary takes title to the new property before you in an entity called the exchange accommodating title holder.  

If he has visa and work in USA he can buy this property under conventional loan.

In other words why couldn't a car loan contain language saying if they don't make the car payment the loan holder could lock them out of your rental??

$ Fast Close$ There is no need for an appraisal$ No Fees$ No Repairs$ No commissions$ There is no closing costs, since there is no transfer of mortgage holder.