What cash-flow, if any, you plan to generate from this property.If you are short on cash and/or your rental projections will be tight, then the 7/1 ARM might make more sense.If you are good on cash and/or your rental projects show that you will be generating sufficient cash flow, then the 30-year fixed might be a better option.I have used both mortgage vehicles for my properties, dependent on my situation at the time.  

All that to say, if you have sufficient evidence that the market is showing the value of the home is different than what the appraisal comes to, then appraisals should not be an issue.

The way you describe this is as a pass through entity which is sufficient and simplifies everything.

For all we know you are an LP who owns 1% of these properties ownership structures or you are someone who helped raise money for a GP and in return was awarded the "co-gp" title even though no bank will ever accept your signature because your balance sheet isn't sufficient.

What I'm looking for is a decision where despite the plaintiff's demand for the defendant to convey the real property, the court decided that a damage award would be sufficient.

If the borrower intends to use the same asset to satisfy financial reserve requirements, the lender must reduce the value of the asset (the account balance, in most cases) by the proceeds from the secured loan and any related fees to determine whether the borrower has sufficient reserves.

I would probably tell her to buy some vitamins No just kidding.

Passing the Self-sufficiency test on 3-4 unit properties with FHA financing is truly a nightmare. 

What guarantee do you have they will carry sufficient hazard insurance?

Once you've accumulated sufficient reserves for the property in this account, you can then use the excess cash balance to sweep over to your personal account as profit distributions.The key here is keeping the entities separate.