Paging @Bill GulleyRecently you wrote a post about contracts, citing various forms of fraud such as fraud by inducement, etc.

One can only induce demand so much. 

Both of us agree...when you purposely aren't telling a lender that you are quit claiming the deed to a new owner thereby breaking a material loan covenant (the due on sale clause) in order to induce them to keep accepting payments from who they think is the person they made the loan to at a lower rate than they should get from a new applicant, that is mortgage fraud.

Talk about inducing a rage tornado.

Completely self induced for sure.  

Could the attorney cause you other problems, maybe under a statute of frauds/inducement, depending on the entirety of the situation….maybe.Bottom line, if the seller did not have legal authority to sell the property, the contract is likely void on it’s face.

With regards to repairs, we have a clause in our lease that says that for tenant induced damage the tenant is responsible for the first $100 of the repair.  

the good news is that you have had email confirmation from the representative that they would be giving you clear title in order to get you to sign the contract.This is known as inducement.  

As a matter of fact, any time you fib to a bank or omit pertinent information about a loan, such as the fact that you're transferring title and, therefore, breaking a loan covenant and you are purposely hiding that fact to induce them to continue providing a loan at a lower rate, that is "the other F word".

If my wife had an epideral or was induced, it would have been more.