Out of curiosity, how did you originally finance the properties if they are negatively cash flowing?

Originally posted by @Glenn McCrorey:BP brothers and sisters,  I quit the last job I will ever have today to focus on RE investing. 

Goes back to that original thesis in a thread long time ago-- quality over quantity.

If you intend to vacate, the original lease agreement states you have to provide a 30 day written notice of your intent to vacate.

If you have a slow leak...coverage is less likely especially with aged plumbing.To the original poster, Salil.  

Surplus line is what I have been looking for as I am involved with an older property that is typically found to be uninsurable by a lot of other mainstream insurance companies due to the properties age and some of its original features and surroundings, I just have a question and have done some reading on this and it's really not too clear and it sounds it can go either way really with this and I'm fairly new to all this so I am learning a lot of things as I go but should the private non traditional mortgage lender be listed as additional insured while the person occupying & buying the home and also purchasing the property from the lender be listed as mortgagee?

I see that it has been 3 months since the original post; how are things going?

He ended up taking my underwriting/origination escrowed money and strung me along for six months, frustrating me, the realtor, the seller, and making my negotiation potential crumble.

Originally posted by @James Syed:Just posted another 5 day letter at the front door.

It’s always good advice for someone doing a 1031 to actually have their replacement property under contract when they sell the original property, but few actually do this.