Originally posted by "REI":channel7,Good deal based on the subsequent offers.

Granted, there are variables that would influence and subsequently guide each member towards a different strategy but if there's some basic advice you can offer that would be great.  

Your purchase will be closed first, then if you're getting a rehab loan, that is a subsequent transaction in another settlement.

The one who holds the oldest lien has the advantage of foreclosing earlier than subsequent lien holders.  

The $10k will be used for the Earnest Money Deposit, and subsequent closing costs.

The fundamental guiding principle, which guides the initial purchase and all subsequent purchases is what has made Warren Buffett so successful and what you can use in real estate as a basic foundation to your analyses and purchasing strategy.

The only job of the Trustee is to get the best price for their client who is the Lien holder foreclosing on the property and then subsequently complete the transaction by collecting funds and filing the foreclosure deedThe Trustee has zero responsibility to make sure bidders aren't colluding(other than verifying funds) or ensuring the title is clear 

There is a five year ownership rule that applies to investment property initially acquired in a 1031 exchange that was subsequently converted to a primary residence. 

isn't realistic.Of course, the bank could use your offer to define a higher value for the property and subsequently not accept the lower offer based on the value, but that's completely different than the bank accepting your offer for the seller.

@George Smith, that particular problem will go away, if your rehab is so good that your Lender's subsequent appraisal becomes $146k+, rather than $130k.ie.