That's how I interpret the law, but I'm not an attorney...

As a layman, reading and interpreting the code is...difficult to say the least.

I left the question up for interpretation. 

I always interpreted it to mean that for the first year you have 2 months security deposit.

Absolutely use a lawyer and include ever possible detail covering all conceivable situation.Never leave any financial aspect open to individual interpretation.

Understand, we as layman do not always come up with the correct interpretation of a lot of legalese......even though we consider ourselves capable of understanding what we read.The hoa language mentions “automatic” PMI termination....that deals with ltv verses the Original value, not a reappraised value.  

A lessee, his personal representatives, devisees or assigns, may have against an heir, devisee, grantee or alienee of the reversion, or of any part thereof, or of any estate therein, his heirs, devisees, or assigns, the like benefit of any condition, covenant, or promise in the lease, as he could have had against the lessors themselves; except the benefit of any warranty, in deed or law.I interpret these two sections to say that leases convey with the property and the obligations of the landlord and the tenant under the terms of a lease are not affected by a change in ownership.  

Post what you would like, ask questions, ask for clarifications, disagree, but refrain from interpreting others' remarks.

Just saying, how you read it may not be how it may be interpreted

But unofficially, a reasonable range of value is generally interpreted as being within 5% and most always less than 10%.