Some people try to interpret the "execute" in an "executory fashion" (completed/closed/out),  but all lenders I know interpret it just as it seems....90 days before the FHA buyer and seller can sign the contract, not 90 days before closing. 

Just like doing business with friends or family members, always make sure you have a contract in place when you blur lines and make sure the scope, payment terms, remedies for repairs, etc are covered so once the job is done it's the letter of the contract that is path and not interpretation.

(At least as I interpret it). 

Jackson, Just a little bit more about me.I have been buying properties since 1997 in Brooklyn, NY.Your experience in 2004 which took you 3 years to work hard and save up to buy (in 2007 as I interpreted it) a single investment which the Market Value was $650k (in 2004) that increased in value to $1.2 Million, roughly a 100% increase is FANTASTIC in any other market EXCEPT in many neighborhoods in NYC.My hats off to you in regards to what you have done by buying it at 55% of Market Value at the time.Just to do some calculations, you would have purchased the property at 55% below $650k Market = 55% x $650k = $357,500.I want to break it down in 2 different scenarios since you didn't mention that you bought it with a Mortgage or not.

Use all of the proceeds at the end of the sale in the next purchase.If you take cash out or if you purchase less than what you sold the IRS interprets that you have taken profit out and you pay tax on the difference while not jeopardizing the rest of your exchange.So while it is a very good thing to know your profit situation, in a 1031 it doesn't affect your requirements.

I was just seing if others agree with my interpretation of the read.

A verbal offer can easily be interpreted as testing the water rather than a serious offer.

Chances are they're investor friendly.Also if you get a title company that refuses, simply ask them for their interpretation of lines 203/5032 things that I have done before is ask my title company to call the other title company and explain to them the dealiothe other is instead of saying a Sub2 deal, ask them if they close "wraps" or "wrap around mortgages" there is a good chance they understand that term. if they refuse, it's simply b/c they don't know, I've been told so many times by little town mom & pop shop title companies that it's illegal and "You can't do that around here"it's simply because they just don't know how so they automatically say you "can't"if you're in good with your title company then it should be no big deal to ask them to do that favor for you, there is a good chance they'll help with the processing of it to make the other title company feel more comfortable. ps. when I say title company, it's actually the legal dpt of my title company calling the legal dpt of the other title company explaining it's ok and how to do it properly. now with all that being said, Sub2's don't "require" a title company close, they can be "table top closings"I hope I was of some help

So which JP's in Dallas county are interpreting the law differently ?

Opinion based on numbers...thus facts as interpreted by me, and explained by me to show the connection between the numerical facts and the question posed here.