Below is a simplistic view:Basis is generally the amount an asset cost you.

In a nutshell/simplistic form, the bank/mortgage originator originates the loan to the GSE's, the GSE's package it into MBS, issue a  credit guarantee on the repayment of the MBS cash flow streams, and sell it to a private investor (even this is a bit of a misnomer, but the most straight-forward way to explain it).

I prefer to get a timeline of the process between checkpoints.Sorry if my question is over simplistic.

The diagram is overly simplistic but I hope it conveys the risk urban sprawl represents.Not every city is subject to urban sprawl.

Anything more than that would be a judgment call.That is a pretty simplistic explanation assuming I understand your question.

I don't think a CPA will mind talking to you to give you an education when it's likely you would use them for your business.I'm not a CPA but in simplistic terms and from what can be read in the IRS Publication 529, the 27.5 you speak of is for residential property.

PLUS , you still cannot show how it is functional in any way since you have to have a SOLD price to do your simplistic math.  

You are making 5% on the bank's money, which exponentially increases your returns per dollar invested.Obviously this is a simplistic example, but the concept holds true when you apply it to real life, subject to certain caveats.

This is far to simplistic and short imo.

MindyAwesome and simplistic.