But it seems like the current house prices (3+ beds, 2+ baths with a pool) doesn't seem to incur a good cash flow.

I would recommend pushing back on this as there is more value as a stand alone feature (like a pool or guest house).2.

:Class A Properties:Cashflow vs Appreciation: Typically, 3-5 years for positive cashflow, but you get highest relative rent & value appreciation.Vacancy Est: Historically 10%, 5% the more recent norm.Tenant Pool: Majority will have FICO scores of 680+ (roughly 5% probability of default), zero evictions in last 7 years.Class B Properties:Cashflow vs Appreciation: Typically, decent amount of relative rent & value appreciation.Vacancy Est: Historically 10%, 5% should be applied only if proper research done to support.Tenant Pool: Majority will have FICO scores of 620-680 (around 10% probability of default), some blemishes, but should have no evictions in last 5 yearsClass C Properties:Cashflow vs Appreciation: Typically, high cashflow and at the lower end of relative rent & value appreciation.

We started with a pool of 4 1st Lien NPN for 15K.

@Griscel MacielIt's probably more ideal if you could sell all four properties at once to an investor for convenience, but that will be a smaller pool of potential buyers.

The tenant pools are great, as we are the State capital, we have two MAJOR hospitals, government jobs, large developments happening (out-of-state union workers), MSU, Lansing Community College, and so on. 

The purpose of my post was to make others aware of the difficulties associated with selling entry level SFH's which tend to be in neighborhoods with limited owner occupant participation and when the owner occupant participation exists the buyer pool are the least qualified of the FHA buyer pool.

Let us use an example:Average 3/2 pool home in Pinellas County within 10 mins to the beach, $3000-3500 per month rent.

Try USLI they were great until they limited liability at $1M if you have a pool.

On Page 134, he lists the following when analyzing a deal:Sales Price: $132,490.00Sales Expenses: $17,000.00Loan Balance: $55,004.72Total Invested Capital: $35,950.00Profit: $24,535.28I agree with his thought process here when he calculates net profit, but I'm trying to verify the net profit by adding up all the sources of income over the past five years in his example by doing the following:Appreciation over five years=$12,490 (see chart on Page 133).Cash flow ($297.73x12x5)=$17,863.80 over five years.Loan paydown: ($60,000-55,004.72)=$4,995.28 over five years.Sales Expenses are still $17,000.Doing the math, profit= $12,490+$17,863.80+$4,995.28-$17,000=$18,349.08There is a $6,186.20 difference from the net profit he calculates.My question is: Is this $6,186.20 difference due to the forced appreciation gained in the property from the rehab he does in this example?