HI, I own a part share of a nice recently renovated house in North London, with other members of my family owning the rest, left to me in my fathers estate, with probate granted in 1999, as a tenant in common.

During this renovation period would you, as the lender, want an Actual Cash Value or Full Repair Cost policy in place?

Then things went south...I decided to gut the rest of the basement since it got water damaged from the foundation issue.

@Jeff Nash, noted the two year period. 

Despite the guru fed “misinformation” about all these under market price deals, they are actually very rare and require (1) the investor recognizing value that the seller and the rest of the market misses or (2) a seller with a need for an immediate sale and a buyer with the CASH immediately available to conclude a very quick closing usually forgoing inspections, financing, and other contingencies. 

Zillow tracks all listings for all periods.

Oversimplifying it just a bit, the investor profits from:- a non-refundable option paid by the tenant-buyer which gives them the right to purchase the property within their option period- the spread between the rent paid by the investor to the property owner and the rent paid to the investor by the tenant-buyer over the life of the option- the spread between the price ultimately paid by the investor when they exercise their option with the owner and the price ultimately paid by the tenant-buyer when they exercise their option with the investorClear as mud?

Period - end of statement.

Keep in mind of the I/O(payments/period) and game plan on how fast you'd like to pay it down. 

A line of credit is adjustable rate with interest only payments that will have a "draw" period usually of 3-5 years for investment properties (usually 10 years for primary home) then will amortize over the remaining term after the draw period.