I don't think people were necessarily giving you "trial by fire", but interpreted your responses and made some assumptions. 

How will lenders interpret using my current job to qualify for the loan but having to leave that job to occupy the house?

I'm not a Lawyer, and this is not to be interpreted as legal advice, however, here is what I see has happened:1 - Faulty Option contract made worse by Owner's actions:  Somehow, even after the contract to buy has come and GONE (my math says 2007 + 5 years doesn't include year 2018), the tenant buyer has been allowed to continue to make (and have accepted...BIG problem) payments on the Buy Contract. 

Again, I'm not a lawyer, nor CPA, and I might be wrong in my interpretation of your situation.

They made it clear that they don't get involved in interpreting contracts and they would only release it if there was something signed by both my and the buyer.

Am I interpreting the "expiration of a fixed-term lease" correctly?

I am interested in learning from other people's experiences with this, just in case my interpretation of the whole situation is not correct. 

Just saw an article on Bloomberg alluding to changes with 1031 exchanges.  The gist I'm getting is that the cost basis for the new property will be stepped down to adjust for depreciation on the property that's being ...

I believe I was interpreting hard money as not only the interest rate per month, but also a mortgage payment.

Interpreting leases:  Lease controls where it speaks on a topic (and not void or voidable under statute).