Bilateral contracts may be assigned if not stated otherwise in the contract without consent of another party.

Will this language allow me to properly assign my interests to the end buyer with notice to the owner, without needing his consent to do so?

Though I have questioned some of their bidding practices from time to time, I think it is safe to say this home was occupied without the consent of HUBZU.

Can I search the applicant's name in public records (court websites) without their written consent? 

When a borrower agrees to DIL, FC by consent, or short sale, we waive the deficiency. it can be an effective bargaining chip.

Check with your local MLS, but mine requires written consent from the current owner of record. 

https://www.biggerpockets.com/member-blogs/12388/86773-renting-real-estate-without-the-owners-consent-isn-t-that-fraudI'd get a preliminary title report ASAP. 

This subsection does not apply to a lien or encumbrance placed on the property that is:(1) placed on the property because of the conduct of the purchaser;(2) agreed to by the purchaser as a condition of a loan obtained to place improvements on the property, including utility or fire protection improvements; or(3) placed on the property by the seller prior to the execution of the contract in exchange for a loan used only to purchase the property if:(A) the seller, not later than the third day before the date the contract is executed, notifies the purchaser in a separate written disclosure:(i) of the name, address, and phone number of the lienholder or, if applicable, servicer of the loan;(ii) of the loan number and outstanding balance of the loan;(iii) of the monthly payments due on the loan and the due date of those payments; and(iv) in 14-point type that, if the seller fails to make timely payments to the lienholder, the lienholder may attempt to collect the debt by foreclosing on the lien and selling the property at a foreclosure sale;(B) the lien:(i) is attached only to the property sold to the purchaser under the contract; and(ii) secures indebtedness that, at no time, is or will be greater in amount than the amount of the total outstanding balance owed by the purchaser under the executory contract;(C) the lienholder:(i) does not prohibit the property from being encumbered by an executory contract; and(ii) consents to verify the status of the loan on request of the purchaser and to accept payments directly from the purchaser if the seller defaults on the loan; and(D) the following covenants are placed in the executory contract:(i) a covenant that obligates the seller to make timely payments on the loan and to give monthly statements to the purchaser reflecting the amount paid to the lienholder, the date the lienholder receives the payment, and the information described by Paragraph (A);(ii) a covenant that obligates the seller, not later than the third day the seller receives or has actual knowledge of a document or an event described by this subparagraph, to notify the purchaser in writing in 14-point type that the seller has been sent a notice of default, notice of acceleration, or notice of foreclosure or has been sued in connection with a lien on the property and to attach a copy of all related documents received to the written notice; and(iii) a covenant that warrants that if the seller does not make timely payments on the loan or any other indebtedness secured by the property, the purchaser may, without notice, cure any deficiency with a lienholder directly and deduct from the total outstanding balance owed by the purchaser under the executory contract, without the necessity of judicial action, 150 percent of any amount paid to the lienholder.

Part of the contract states that I can’t assign unless otherwise giving written consent to seller.

The house has been listed on market for a few months and not moving anywhere. my partner started pocketing income by listing the house on Airbnb without any written consent from me.