[ In July 1973, Birdie, Dorothy, and Fred Mans purchased a property in Riverside California for the amount of $19,100 financed with Bank of America with a 30yr fixed rate of 8% (the going rate that month was 8.05%, and the annual rate that year was 8.04%). Secured by a Deed of Trust instrument containing the Due-on-Sale clause included. In July of 1975, Cynthia Wellenkamp purchased the property by assuming the balance of the loan at the 8%. In July 1975 the going interest rate was 8.89% for FHA. The prevailing interest rate from Bank of America would’ve been nearing 9.25%. The Deed was transferred and recorded into the name of Cynthia Wellenkamp on July 10th, 1975. It has been said that Wellenkamp made her July payment and Bank of America returned the payment citing it’s right to accelerate the loan and calling it due. The bank did offer to refinance the loan in her name at the 9.25% rate. Wellenkamp refused and so Bank of America filed a NOD (Notice of Default). ]
This was posted by Nick J in 2009 on BP.
Now it could not be clearer. The Bank's SOLE CONCERN was pulling out an extra point and a quarter on the loan. Nothing about 'Asset Securitization'. Nothing about title transfer causing a 'loan defect'. Nothing even about the 'inherent risk' of a new property owner. The Banks sole concern was pulling out an extra 12% on the loan.
As well look at it from the other side of the coin. Suppose an REI does a sub2 wrap in which a new buyer is faithfully paying on a 5% loan and prevailing rates are 4%. Who seriously expects the bank is going to call the loan due for the privilege of doing a re-fi producing TWENTY PERCENT LESS revenue ?