@Mark Ainley and @Linda Weygant thank you for the reply. You are both correct. When I look over the title commitment it says:
"THE FIRST INSTALLMENT OF 2013 TAXES SHOWS NO AMOUNT BILLED.
THE SECOND INSTALLMENT OF 2013 TAXES SHOWS NO AMOUNT BILLED.
THE FIRST INSTALLMENT OF 2014 TAXES SHOWS NO AMOUNT BILLED .
THE SECOND INSTALLMENT OF 2014 TAXES IS NOT YET DUE, PAYABLE OR DELINQUENT." - I found this surprising as well, but my lawyer said there were no red flags.
Also regarding the contract:
"The general Real Estate taxes
95 shall be prorated as of the date of Closing based on \CSSgo of the most recent ascertainable full year tax bill. All
96 prorations shall be final as of dosing, except as provided in Paragraph 22. If the amount of the most recent
97 ascertainable full year tax bill reflects a homeowner, senior citizen or other exemption, a senior freeze or senior
98 deferral, then Seller has submitted or will submit in a timely manner all necessary documentation to the
99 appropriate governmental entity, before or after Closing, to preserve said exemption(s). The requirements of
100 this Paragraph shall survive the Closing."
I guess my main question, which I should know, if someone typically purchases a property in 2015, does the buyer pay the property taxes for the 2014 year or does the buyer not start paying taxes on the property till 2015 taxes is due? Thanks again for all of the help