Long time lurker, first time poster… let me start by saying a big thank-you to everyone here for what I’ve picked up over the last few months – very valuable resource. Sorry for the long lead-up to the question…
I’ve been investing full-time for a few years, have flipped a bunch of properties, and have acquired a number of rentals. Wife works a lucrative day job but really doesn’t want to do it anymore. We’ve got a good chunk of liquid retirement assets, a good chunk of in-process flipping assets, and a lot of equity in our primary residence.
… and then we’ve got the rental portfolio. Let’s say it generates $35k a year of after-repair free cash flow. In theory, that is roughly equivalent to having another $1m invested in the bank (assuming you can conservatively draw at 3.5% - I know, huge assumptions here).
Theoretically, if we were to sell the flipping portfolio, put that money in the bank and stop working, we could roughly count on a 3.5% return on the bank assets, plus the $35k a year from the rentals.
Where the problem starts is that the wife wants to see “the value” of the rental portfolio and the primary residence somewhere in “the number.” I respond that we don’t sell the rental portfolio or we lose the income (true), but since we don’t have any kids she insists that the underlying equity in the rental portfolio needs to be considered in the model as we aren’t going to take them with us (also true).
Long way around: how do I value the residual value of the rental portfolio as I think about retirement? There will be a time when I don’t want to deal with them and we sell them, but I’m struggling with how I reflect that in a future retirement model.
Does that make any sense?
Thanks in advance!
Steve