Originally posted by @Joe Splitrock:
Quote from @Shane Zilinskas:
Originally posted by
@Joe Splitrock:
@Shane Zilinskas I think what you mean is better than 80% LTV (20% down payment). The reason banks require 20-25% down payments is to mitigate loan risk. They are concerned about your ability to pay, but equally concerned that they can get their money back if you stop paying.
Short term rentals are an actively managed business. What happens if you get in a car crash tomorrow and can't manage your guests? Income could drop to nothing quickly and the bank wants to be able to foreclose, resell the asset and walk away without loosing money.
You may find a lender willing to take more risk, but usually that comes with higher interest rate or loan costs. If you do improvements to the property or hold it longer, it will be easier to get cash back out.
There is already a management company in place and they have operated it for the last 3 years like this. It's almost entirely passive other than approval for major repairs.
Correct me if I am wrong, but you have not owned it 3 years? You said acquire it and immediately refinance for 100% of purchase price. They are giving you a loan at 100% of value. If you had to sell the property tomorrow, after sales expenses you are looking at 92% cash back out. That is very risky for a bank to know an asset will net less on sale than is owed.
I am not trying to argue with you, just explaining how risk assessment works for banks. Banks are not entrepreneurs. You see puppies and rainbows, they see risk of default. If they take risk, they expect higher payout.
I really appreciate you trying to poke holes. I understand what you're saying from the risk management side of the banks.
To answer your question - I have not owned it for the last 3 years, but we would be continuing to run it through the same property management company. I guess that's the first question I should get clear on - if we could use that history to qualify.
I suppose the heart of what I'm trying to wrap my head around is this hypothetical:
I acquire a property for $1M that has a NOI of $150k. If I had owned the property myself all these years and wanted to get a loan from a bank based on the debt service coverage - I would think I could qualify for a much higher loan based on the gross rental income. Understanding the interest rates would be higher etc, but would a bank not let me REFI at a larger loan amount which would let me get cash out?
It doesn't need to be "immediate", but I'm really just trying to understand the constraints. Alternatively, let's just say we bought it cash, would a bank not let me qualify for a loan based off the debt service coverage?