Skip to content
×
Pro Members Get
Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
ANNUAL Save 54%
$32.50 /mo
$390 billed annualy
MONTHLY
$69 /mo
billed monthly
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
×
Try Pro Features for Free
Start your 7 day free trial. Pick markets, find deals, analyze and manage properties.
All Forum Categories
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

All Forum Posts by: Ramon Mendoza

Ramon Mendoza has started 2 posts and replied 2 times.

I have a question regarding a property that I'm looking to buy. The property owner is asking $300,000 for the property, but owes $160,000 on a property that they purchased using owner financing. $300,000 cash is a lot to ask for in this market. Would it be feasible/legal to but the property for $300,000 but offer $140,000 down for them to walk away with, and they walk away with exactly how much they want, but assume the $160,000 loan via sub to, or wrap around mortgage, so long as they are open to the terms? This would give me the flexibility to give the owner what they want to walk away with, and have ownership of the property, but I just want to make sure that this is an option in Texas. Thank you so much for your help!

The seller is selling 3 duplexes on the same lot (6 units altogether) as a package deal. Is this considered a commercial deal? Having a hard time finding comps. Thank you everyone!