Hi there! A year ago I purchased property with two houses built in 1943 and 1950. One property was not listed on documents so I was able to get the county to grandfather in the second house. They assessed them as "two single family dwellings" and also declared both houses to be non-conforming. The exact verbiage on the official signed document from the county is as follows:
"The property is currently assessed with two single family dwellings; however, these dwellings were constructed prior to building permits being required. The current zone district requires a minimum of one acre for two single family dwellings; therefore, these dwellings are considered legal, non-conforming. Internal improvements may occur, however, the footprints fo the homes may not be expanded in any way."
As a note, both houses have individual addresses and I am working with the electric company to install separate meters. One house is approx 1000sqft with three bedrooms, one bath. The second is approx 750sqft with one bedroom, one bath. From the outside they both have a similar look and appear the same size.
In general I am curious how this property would be assessed? Our intentions are to either (1) rent out one and live in the other or (2) rent out both houses.
Is this document enough for an appraiser to consider both houses into the total square footage, room count and overall value? If not, are two separate single-family dwellings considered multifamily if the zoning permits it?