Hi Charles,
No I don't have a pet slug, but you have to admit, they would make great pets. They make no noise, take up little space, eat next to nothing, and it's not like they can run away.
You said: "I have heard of many people going this route in purchasing a home. The perks of the deal are that the end buyer usually does not have good enough credit to actually purchase a house so instead a lease option is better suited for their current financial abilities. I don't understand how they afford the non-refundable option monies but that's besides the point."
MyPetSlug: So, for a person with bad credit, how is the lease option better suited for them? They essentially take the lease option with the deposit on faith that they'll be able to fix whatever credit problems they have in the future enough to buy the house at a price above where the market is now. At the same time, they are essentially renting at an above market rent because they're paying a premium for the option to buy. Doesn't trying to fix one's credit at the same time you're paying a large rent seem counter productive to you? Even if not, if the market goes down, the option price suddenly doesn't look so hot and they're out 5K.
Add to that the fact that it make infinitely more sense for a person with credit problems to rent cheaply somewhere for a while, while they fix their credit problems with no risk of losing 5K and no risk of the market going down.
You said: "on another note; all the people that I know that do these type of deals do purchase the home below fair market value and therefore start out with equity. part of this equity is then transferred to the end buyer which will setup a lease option. What do you mean "they are going to be renting at an amount that covers 95% of the mortgage". I usually see deals like this:
purchase price=85K (assumed the current mortage)
ARV=100K
sell price=95K "
MyPetSlug: How do these people you know purchase the home below market? In every lease option I've heard explained, including HuntMan1, the option price is always above market because the seller had no equity to play with and you want to make money when the leaser exercises their option.
What I mean by "they are going to be renting at an amount that covers 95% of the mortgage" is that because you're assuming the mortgage "Subject to" and the seller has no, or very little, equity (the example HuntMan1 gave was 5%), you have to set the rent as at least the mortgage payment that you're now making, which is 95% LTV on the house. In my area, and I would guess most, renting a single family house for essentially the same price it would cost to get a 95% mortgage on it would be a very high rent.
So, my point was that because of that you're looking for a very specific person, someone who can afford to borrow 100% of the purchase price of the house, but for some reason has bad credit and, as I was arguing in my other paragraph, is also bad at math.
Also, in the example you gave, the person has 15% equity, so they could afford to hire a real estate agent.
As for you cash-flow example, I mean, I understand that part. I know how it's good for the investor. It's great for him. I'm just arguing that is seems terrible for the buyer.
MyPetSlug