@Michael Plaks
To date I’ve done 20 or so flips and 4 rentals in 5 years. I do this full time. I’m still a small timer compared to a lot here, but I’m not hiding anything.
“Party A” - private investor.
We do a lot of creative financing. 20 year owner carry with no payments for 6 months at 3%.
Sub2 and owner carry for 18 months with no interest, just a higher purchase price.
We’ve done 3 sub2s on flips and rentals and varying degrees of owner equity payoff. One was paid off over 4 years with no interest on owner carry. Others paid off when sold.
We have a pool of about 10 small to mid level private investors.
1031 ex with long term financing play is the one that went bad.
We owned the flip and we were looking for long term financing. One of our partners was selling and wanted to put 1031 ex funds somewhere. We worked a deal where he would buy the property from us and lease it back on a 30 year lease option with a 4.1% interest rate. $250k.
We are 4 years into that contract. He has had a nasty divorce after 40 years of marriage, found and married a new person within 4 months, and has been making poor financial decisions.
He wanted to sell our property to pay off money owed on the divorce. So this was the initial cause for the contract dispute.
We had another $115k note at 9% with another entity that he lent as well. That entity used the funds to flip a few properties, and at the time he didn’t need the money back and agreed to allow us to use those funds to further the improvements on the 1031 ex property.
That property appraised last year for $365,000. Our agreed upon plan was when we executed the option, we would combine those debts and interest.
The appraisal was as is in unfinished condition and has an ARV of $495k or so.
I didn’t realize the source of the dispute would effect the answer on the tax side of the settlement. So there’s the background.
After us trying to get him to sign and allow either the combining of the note to the option to execute it, or executing the $250k option as is, he won’t allow either option.
We have an attorney who drafted up our settlement agreement and we agreed on us releasing our interest in the option as payment for the note.
The $115k note and option are in different entities.
So my questions is on the tax side, how do we show that as an equal exchange of goods when the note was true monetary value in entity A and the option contract was equitable rights value in entity B.
Right now my accountant is saying that it will show as a $115k profit and that since we didn’t own the property, she doesn’t know how to account on the books how to show the asset of the contract.