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All Forum Posts by: Mark Spritz

Mark Spritz has started 14 posts and replied 62 times.

Quote from @Caroline Gerardo:

@Mark Spritz several posters asked questions to help you but it seems you are not understanding. Please read through and try to clarify.

The contract says you are buying 123 Maple Street and adjacent lot? This is VERY vague should have had two APN numbers and two legal descriptions on the contract so first error was your buyer agent not spelling out what you were buying. Adjacent can mean just about anything.

Title company sent you preliminary title with one parcel map not two? You, your agents and if you had a lender signed off as okay. Conventional lender may have only wanted to file their note on the lot with a house? Can't tell by your description. Did you have a lender? Did the title company issue title insurance that you paid for?

Somehow the county transferred two lots to your name and you see it recorded and you are being taxed two bills. Did you look at what was recorded? Are both tax bills now in your name? It seems to your advantage to have an extra parcel and one with water access may in the future be very valuable, does it have riparian rights to the water? Why do you think it is a bad thing to have the two parcels? Was your contract written 123 Maple and adjacent lot then you got what you wanted. If you didn't pay for title insurance on both lots you cannot complain or ask them for anything, your recourse is your agent's errors and omission insurance, but agent will claim they are not a title expert, you maybe have no recourse. 

The tax assessor bill is based on what seller paid in the past, your property taxes will increase when the tax man catches up with sale price.


 Sorry. No loan, paid in cash. I have only one tax bill. the lot in question is very very tiny. like 5 feet from back of lot to water. There is only one "parcel". The lot should be from the street to the water, but a survey found later that there are 2 lots. The last 5 feet to the water being the separate one.

All I am really asking is to figure out who can I go after, if anyone. The main situation is that 2 owners ago did not transfer the entire "lot" to the previous owner, and that 2 owners ago is deceased. I am expecting that either the Escrow/Title company is at fault or I can file a claim to Title Insurance. Maybe neither and I am the one left with the mess, (most likely)

But thought I could ask for some help. And based on all the replies, they definitely helped out a lot (pun unintended)

Quote from @Wayne Brooks:

@Mark Spritz How, exactly, was the property described in the purchase agreement? Was a legal description in the purchase agreement, and if so, does That description include both lots?


 There wasn't known that they were two separate lots (the one(lot) to the water is extremely small). Everything we looked at showed it as one lot. From the street to the water.

The contract states the parcel and adjacent, and that I am paying RE taxes on the parcel that they are saying wasn't transferred. I am going to call the title insurance company up.

Quote from @Kevin Sobilo:

@Mark Spritz, a title company does what you hire them to do. You might only hire them to handle the closing or you might have them additionally do a title search, on top of that you might have them issue title insurance. They aren't guaranteeing anything only doing the work with professional care that is why title insurance exists.

In addition, what kind of deed did the seller give you. A General Warranty Deed, Special Warranty Deed, or a Quit Claim Deed?

If they gave a General Warranty Deed, then the seller is guaranteeing any title issues. So, you could go after them for compensation.

If they gave you a Special Warranty Deed, they are guaranteeing against any title issues that came into existence during their ownership. So, depending on when this issue/error was created they COULD be liable to you for this issue.

With a Quit Claim Deed they are not making any guarantees about the title at all.

If you have title insurance that is the best option because I'm sure they would handle the issue and then themselves seek compensation from the seller, if applicable.


 Thanks for the reply. It was a standard purchase from the previous owner.

Quote from @Trent Dues:

Does the legal description match the parcel you signed a contract for? Unfortunately, no wrong doing was done if you signed an agreement to purchase a parcel of land, and that parcel alone is what was ran in the title search and deeded into your name. A lot of properties have empty lots that sit next to the parcel containing the home, especially in rural areas. The side lot may or may not have been purchased on the same deed by your seller, but unless your contract outlines both to be included in the sale, there really wouldn't be any legal action to take place, other than reconvening with the seller and having them sign a corrective deed to add the empty lot. That said, should someone at some point in the process have looked at the deed of record and noticed two legal descriptions/parcels and asked questions on why the second isn't being convened? Absolutely. But if this is the case, you shouldn't have any legal responsibility to pay tax on land you do not own, so for that reason, you have a claim to make with the state department.


 Thanks for the reply. It is not a side lot, it is behind the lot to the water. About 5 feet away. And if you look at property lines on maps it show that it goes all the way to the water, but something is wrong. 

Not sure what my options are. I was sold a property that I was told was on a particular sized lot. The Lawyer/Escrow company did not find out that part of that lot was considered a separate lot. So basically, there are 2 properties with separate deeds and title. However, I am being taxed by the state for the entire lot, the previous owner thought they owned the entire lot. But now we find out that now well after closing that I do not own both parts of the lot. I have been told I now have to spend 5K on a Quiet Title Action. But it isn't my fault that the escrow/title company did not figure it out on their own. I thought that is what we pay them for.

What are my options besides the Quiet Title Action, because I shouldn't be at fault for something someone else missed. And I already asked if they can go through the deed/title warranty. I feel I should have a case against someone that made the mistake and have them have to cover any costs.

Thanks

Post: Need help in Filling out a Form For Assuming POS

Mark SpritzPosted
  • Investor
  • Los Angeles, CA
  • Posts 65
  • Votes 21
Originally posted by @Jared Lichtin:

@Mark Spritz I’ve bought plenty of properties in cleveland heights,. Just put a family member or yourself for the landlord and put your cell on there. Put your best mailing address too because they occasionally have to mail you things.

 Thanks Jared. That’s for section I. For Section II I think it has to be someone in that county. But don’t know what “agent” means. That term is too vague. I don’t know anyone in that county. I’m an out of state investor there. 

Post: Need help in Filling out a Form For Assuming POS

Mark SpritzPosted
  • Investor
  • Los Angeles, CA
  • Posts 65
  • Votes 21

I am buying a property in Cleveland Heights and assuming the POS. But it requires me to fill out the Registration of Dwelling Structure By Out-of-County Owners Form. In the form it has section II for Cuyahoga County Agent Information.

I do not understand what they are looking for. Does anyone know what is supposed to go in this section of the form?

Thanks

Mark

Originally posted by @Jim Spatzenfeld:

Lol, I think I understood your question right away as I am in a similar boat right now. I want to refinance my primary residence and I might not quality due to having too many mortgages (not enough income) but I have more than the entire mortgage amount in the bank.

Cash in the bank does not help to qualify because:

1.) You could spend all the cash in 1 second by just clicking a button with your mouse (or writing a check). Not really much security for the lender. 

2.) By law, if it's your primary residence, they must verify that you have enough past, current and future "INCOME" to make the monthly payments.
Cash in the bank is not considered INCOME.

 So then let's move that money and say it is in a Brokerage account? And then for another scenario that that money is in equity in RE Properties? Would that then count? (No income still) Just that the Net Worth of the individual is say 5 million in assets (Again, not real here, just hypothesizing) Still because there is not any income that they person would still be denied, even though they have the money and ability to pay everything all the time. Crazy world.

Thanks for all the responses

Mark

Post: How to Get $10k/month Cash Flow: That's the Wrong Question

Mark SpritzPosted
  • Investor
  • Los Angeles, CA
  • Posts 65
  • Votes 21
Originally posted by @Justin Thorpe:

@Bill F.

My question is why do people hate their 9-5 so much!

Because it makes the most money. (Software developer here, I never wanted to  get into it, but I was in debt collection, negative net worth. So, finally I gave up and had to get a real job and it paid really well that allowed me to get to where I am now.)

You have to pay bills. 

Your wife thinks that is the only way to make money and won't let you quit. 

You don't have anything else lined up and too lazy to work to find someplace else to work.

A career change would not bring in as much money to where you would now be pay check to pay check and living under your means.

There are a lot of reasons people stick to your jobs they hate. I would say a good 80% or more are in that position. It is sad.