Skip to content
×
PRO
Pro Members Get Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
$0
TODAY
$69.00/month when billed monthly.
$32.50/month when billed annually.
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here
Pick markets, find deals, analyze and manage properties. Try BiggerPockets PRO.
x
All Forum Categories
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

All Forum Posts by: Kristen Miller

Kristen Miller has started 2 posts and replied 2 times.

Hi there fellow forum members!  I own a single parcel with two (legal) single family homes.  They have separate addresses, separate gas and electrical meters, and a shared well.  Both homes are in a desirable area, in excellent condition, with the owner-occupied unit being recently completely re-constructed less than a year ago.

I am looking to have the property appraised, however there are very few comps to work with.  The last appraisal I had done used mostly duplexes and triplexes.  I don't feel as though it properly represented the value of my property.

I'm new to the world of real estate and am seeking advice on how best to deal with the lack of comparable properties.  Can (and should) I be lumped in with duplexes and triplexes?  Is there a better way to communicate with the appraiser to be compared as a home with guest house?  Any advice and insight is much appreciated! 

Hello! Long time reader, first time poster! My husband and I have recently purchased our first home and investment property using an FHA backed loan with a 203k rehabilitation loan component. The initial purchase price was $475,000 with a rehab of $160,000 and a 5% down payment of $32,000 for a total mortgage of $603,000. There are two homes on the property, one of which we will live in and one which is a rental unit bringing in $1,700/ month.

The loan is a relatively high interest rate (~4%) and carries mortgage insurance of $425/ month.  The appraised value of the property after renovations are complete is around $675,000.  Needless to say, we want to refinance into a traditional mortgage ASAP.

Here's my questions:

1. We would like to cash out approx. $30,000 to pay off some high interest consumer debt.  Will banks approve this and also allow for the mortgage insurance to be dropped from the loan?

2. At the initial closing, we placed $10,000 into a Mortgage Insurance Escrow account.  Since the $425 mortgage insurance payment is included into our monthly mortgage payment already, what happens to that escrowed money when we change loans?

3. I've received differing advice on when to refinance.  Many advise waiting six - nine months after close of the initial loan.  It seems to me that getting out of the mortgage insurance and high interest rate sooner rather than later would be wise.  Is there something I'm missing?  What is your advice on timing?

Your advice and experience is much appreciated!