Artificial numbers that are easy to work with -
PP-$1,000,000
downpayment - $200,000
Capex - $100,000
Year 1 NOI - ($20,000)
Debt service - $50,000
Year 1 cash flow ($70,000)
So, basically , year 1 has negative NOI of $20K and negavtive cash flow of $70,000 for the property to be stabilized.
The investor sets up an operating account for year 1 expenses. He sets aside $70,000, and it is withdrawn as needed. all $70,000 becomes depleted on year 1.
I'm getting a little confused as to how to properly calculate COC in this case.
1. What is the total invested amount? Is it ($200K+$100K=$300K), or ($200K+$100k+$70k=$370K)?
2. If the total cash invested is the second scenario($370k), then is the year 1 cash flow still ($70k)? It seems like the $70k is double counted in this case - It is accounted for in the initial investment AND it's counted again as negative cash flow on year 1. It seems like if we account for $70K on the initial investment, the loss from year one is absorbed from the operating account and the year 1 cash flow is 0?
I would appreciate some clarification here. Thanks