All Forum Posts by: Kelly Stuart

I purchased a property in Texas and had a survey done on the property. Per the survey we are missing an acre of property and our survey company is saying that the acre belongs to the neighbors. After speaking with the seller he said that is incorrect. He had a mobile home and a barn on the one acre property that his son lived  in  from 2011-2018. Prior to that his father owned the property from 1984 till he inherited it in 2014. Prior to that his grandfather purchased it in 1920. SO the property has been in the family since 1920. 
We are thinking about doing tacking adverse possession. But the person who sold the property did not use the property for the last 6 years. He would go to the property from time to time to put things in the barn or in the mobile home. He still paid taxes on the property. 
Would we still have a good case for AP? Everything that I have read says "continuous use"