All Forum Posts by: Joshua Stratton

In need of some advice, pending legal consultation with my attorney.

I am a licensed real estate agent in Michigan, but do not practice as one. I have a friend who lives in Texas & I viewed several properties he's going to buy, took photos, and retrieved info from the seller for him since we are both local and he isn't. Essentially I was just an assistant for him. He found the seller and negotiated the sale himself. 

At closing, he has proposed the title company paying me through a JV Agreement a "marketing" or "administrative" or "consulting" fee for helping him. There isn't a real estate agent involved, and I didn't act as one. Anyone unlicensed could have done what I did.

My question is can I be paid directly without violating licensing law? It is unclear to me as I did not act as a realtor or negotiate the sale, but it could appear that way. I'm unsure if I could be paid directly for providing a service or if my brokerage must take it in. 

Thank you!