Originally posted by @Ashish Acharya:
Originally posted by @Dave Foster:
@Linda Weygant Oh CPA Jedi - Will @Jack B.have any issue with "non-qualifying use"? I know he'll still have to recap depreciation taken but I thought he would also only get the proration for qualified use as a primary.
Actually,
If he moves back, he is subject to non qualified use and, capital gain exclusion does not apply to the time preiod that is non qualified.
If the rental period was after moving out of primary residence, there is no non qualified use,
Since you moved in after the house was rental, there is something called Periods of Nonqualified Use. Gain on the nonqualified use are not excludable under that 500k exclusion.
Simple example
You bought a rental home on January 1, 2012, for $200,000. On January 1, 2015, you converts the property into your principal residence, where you live until you sell the home on January 1, 2018, for $350,000. Your total ownership period is six years (2012-2017). However, the years 2012-2014 are a period of nonqualified use since the home was not principal residence during those years
Period of nonqualified use | 3 years |
Total ownership period | 6 years |
Total gain | ($350,000 − $200,000) | $150,000 |
Nonexcludable gain | (3/6 × $150,000) | 75,000 |
You must report a $75,000 gain for non-qualified use.
The remaining $75,000 ($150,000 − $75,000) of gain can be excluded under 500k exclusion because you meet the two-year ownership and use tests for the home and has not excluded another gain in the previous two years.
You have to recapture depreciation too.
I understand this process a little differently
I will use your same example; you buy a rental home on January 1, 2012, for $200,000. On January 1, 2015, you convert the property into your principal residence, where you live until you sell the home on January 1, 2018, for $350,000
The Non-Qualified Usage is 3 years and total ownership is 6 years. I calculate the ratio the same way you did so 3/6 or 50%.
But I thought you reduce the exclusion amount, (e.g. $250,000 for a single) not the cap gain. So now he has a $125,000 exclusion. His profit ($150,000) has a $125,000 exclusion or $25,000 taxable.
Of course, there is depreciation to deal with too. Whatever he deducted in depreciation (or was supposed to deduct) is brought back into play. Let’s say he deducted $10,000 in depreciation for the 3 years it was a rental.
Here is how it plays (Federal only)
$10,000 is taxed at ordinary income rate with a cap of 25%
$25,000 is taxed at long term capital gains rate
Corrections very much appreciated! I am not a pro
And to the OP, this example is not yours, this is if it was used for non-qualified (one example is for a rental) usage first. In your example, you are entitled to the full exclusion. You do have to recapture what your were entitled to take in depreciation (whether you did or not) and that is taxed at ordinary income with a limit of 25%