My wife and I are looking a buying a property from another investor that is a bit unusual. The half acre lot has a 3BR 1Ba house and a garage that decades ago was converted into a 1BR 1Ba house. The seller bought them exactly as they are now 40+ years ago and both have been steady rentals for him. The smaller house has a steady, easy, ongoing tenant. The bigger house is currently empty and just needs a cosmetic update. Great area with lots of appreciation, attracting area for quality renters. It is also in our town, which makes it attractive to us to be able to self-manage and because it's hard to find distressed properties here. The price is right as-is and the seller has already indicated he'd be willing to knock $10K off.
According to the county, they are one property; somehow, the current owner managed to get the post office to create a second address to the smaller house. The electric and gas are completely separate; the water goes to the bigger house, then splits off to the smaller house - each with their own meter.
If it were two separate houses, the numbers all work great to BRRRR. But the reality of them being able to be sold separately is complicated (and have a fair chance of not being approved by the city council) and would cost at least $15K to do. Our goal is continue renting both and not sell hopefully for several decades, but we'll need to provide an ARV to both our hard money lender for the original purchase and to our refinance company.
Thoughts on a) how to calculate ARV on such a property, and b) is this something that you'd go for since everything else looks great or avoid? TIA!