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All Forum Posts by: Greg Ghunt

Greg Ghunt has started 2 posts and replied 20 times.

Originally posted by @Gordon A.:
I am considering purchasing just south of Mass Ave in the South End. Those of you who know the area know it is a warzone line. But when will it gentrify I guess is the question? Anyone think it could be a good play for hold and rent?  

Here are couple recently sold addresses in the area I am interested in. 
https://www.redfin.com/MA/Bost...
https://www.redfin.com/MA/Bost...

Any thoughts are welcomed!
Thanks.

People are definitely investing into properties of that kind. My dad is a plumber & hvac and we looked at a job from a CA investor for a similar type of house, but in Cambridge. I think people do look to live in large rooms, victorian style homes that they divide among room mates, the houses that populate the popular rentable areas of Boston area. On the other hand, the plumbing in MOST old houses in Boston area is aging and often not replaced during major renovations. So inside the house looks solid, but behind the walls, you have corroding pipes waiting to collapse and/or flood. I would consult a plumber before making any investment on a house that is old. You can probably look at the plumbing permit history pulled online, and see all plumbing probably was not replaced. 

Originally posted by @Michael Masters:

I owned a condo at 549 Columbus Ave which I lived in and then rented out from 2003-17.  This is just Northeast of Mass Ave near Wellington St.  When I sold it in 2017, I was looking to roll the money into an entire apartment building in the South End.  I found the cap rates were horrendous and eventually invested in the North End where better cap rates existed.  The South End was expensive as I was competing with families looking to convert apartment buildings back into single family homes.  Cap rates were like 2-3%, whereas the North End gave me around 4.5%.

If I were to buy southwest of Mass Ave, I would stick very close to Mass Ave and not venture too far away.  But consider other neighborhoods where the return is better.

Just as an FYI, I bought in central Boston to get a safe investment.  In the last two months, my 20 units in the North End have given me 100% of the rent due.

I lived in Central Sq for 5+ years. It's a unique place, and definitely people are looking to rent there due to proximity to MIT, Harvard, Bio copmanies, etc. But for quality of life - it is a loud, dense, busy, dirty, smelly place to live and the people are definitely very separated by class of society they are in. It is a WEIRD place I would say, not in a good way though for long term life in my opinion. There is also an uptick of random street crime from that Charter school? and just in general the affilitation of teenagers in schools there with gang activity in my opinion, evidenced by graffiti with strange names. 

Originally posted by @Peter Walther:

There have been multiple court decisions in MA related to foreclosures since the great recession that make underwriters hesitant to insure title to recently foreclosed property, particularly ones that may still be occupied by the Borrower.  So much so that a common exception found in commitments and policies reads:

"Any rights, claims, or interest of (the mortgagor) in the land or any claim that the foreclosure by (lender) is invalid."

However, even if you receive a title policy that does not have the exception there may be additional problems.  For example, if the Borrower brings suit claiming the foreclosure was defective and the insurer decides it has liability it can do one of two things.  It can provide a defense for the insured, which means it with provide a attorney to defend you.  That can be a problem itself since your not a party to the original mortgage or the foreclosure.  The Borrower may claim you don't have standing to defend.  Assuming your retained attorney is able to convince the court you are the real party in interest since you own the property now you have to prove the foreclosure wasn't defective.  That can be tough because as I wrote above, you weren't party to the mortgage or the foreclosure so you don't know anything about it.  You have to hope the lender who foreclosed, who may or may not be your Grantor, appears and can prove there was nothing wrong with the foreclosure.  My point being, this probably would not be resolved quickly.  Realistically it could take years, during which you probably won't be able to sell or refinance the property and the Borrower may be in possession of the property not you.  You of course will probably need to pay the property taxes, keep insurance on it since you own it of record and hope the Borrower keeps it in somewhat habitable condition.

Then, assuming you win, you get clear title to the property.  Hopefully you don't then have to bring an eviction action but I have seen that happen.  And keep in mind, the insurer has perfected title as insured so it's fully performed its obligations, it won't owe you anything else.  No reimbursement for the taxes, insurance, lost rent or attorney's fees if you decided to hire your own attorney to look over things because it was taking so long.

If you unfortunately lose, or if the insurer decides not to spend the money defending it will pay you the lesser of the amount of the policy amount or the value of the property.  Additionally, it probably still won't owe you any other out of pocket expenses.

I've written in other posts that if you look at the title agent being used by the seller, the title agent, not the title underwriter, you might find it owned by the mortgage servicer who is probably the attorney in fact for the lender.  Some people might think that's a conflict of interest.

All in all you might want to talk with a good real estate attorney who practices in the county where the property is and make sure you understand the risks.  I'm not an attorney and this isn't legal advice, it's just my opinion based on about thirty years of handling title insurance claims.  Good luck.

I looked at the documents of the foreclosure as the seller's law firm sent them to me. They are completely illegal by Massachusetts law. I am 100% certain the foreclosure is void per Massachusetts court cases on record. I am being insured by the seller's title insurance company. House is vacant, previous owner is alive though and lives elsewhere. Do they usually reimburse for the cost of the house if the previous owner takes the title back through court? They are issuing me the standard ALTA title policy with what seems like a standard Section B exclusions page. 

 The policy forced me into arbitration and that gives me pause, because I would assume arbitration is biased toward the insurer, otherwise, the insurer would not select them. 

I recently found a very good foreclosure on Homepath.com, submitted an offer which was accepted, did home inspection, and then found out that no title insurance company is willing to insure this property because all foreclosures in Massachusetts are pretty much void because they did not comply with the correct notices for one reason or another, and also foreclosing banks often did not even have the papers showing they have the right to foreclose in the first place (they lied about it in court to get through this routinely, but eventually judges stopped letting them do this). I am wondering if anybody has bought a Fannie Mae Homepath foreclosure. According to lawyers I've consulted, the previous homeowner has a right to get his title back, in Massachusetts, for three years after the foreclosure. The judge would literally transfer the title to the deed of the house back to him and I would be left trying to get reimbursement from the seller's title insurance company, which is saying it their underwriter has reviewed the case and does not believe the homeowner is likely to sue, and they are working to produce a commitment to issue title for me and the title policy after closing. Has anybody a) taken the risk and bought a property like this, b) had the previous get the title back in court from them and then were/weren't reimbursed by the title insurance company? 

Thanks

I was shown a house by a single realtor, one time it was a woman and the other time it was a man. While not completely without witnesses, they could have gotten attacked inside the house with me. This practice is NOT safe. That is why Open House days are probably safer as different people can come in and out - thus more witnesses. But if you want to get attacked by a stranger - have them be inside a house alone with you. They can attack and run. People get attacked on the street too, but this is at least more visually isolated. 

Originally posted by @Peter Walther:
Originally posted by @Greg Ghunt:
Originally posted by @Peter Walther:

I suspect what may have happened is that the legal used on the mortgage was the same one they're proposing to use on the deed into you and that legal does not legally describe the property.  Instead the Assessor's parcel identification number (PIN) was used.  If the PIN was used on the mortgage that's what the foreclosure attorney probably used and that's what was used to convey title to your seller.  If that's what happened, I agree with your attorney, your Seller does not have good title to the property and you will probably have a problem selling or refinancing the property.  Worse yet, the original Borrower could come back and claim (s)he still owns the property and you don't.  (S)he might even be able to gain possession of the house if there is one on the property.

I worked on a title claim with similar facts.  The borrower owned two adjacent parcels, the first was about an acre in size and had a house on it.  The second was also about an acre but was vacant.  When the mortgage was given, the legal description only described the vacant parcel even though both parcels were intended to be encumbered.  When the loan went into default the foreclosure complaint used the same legal as on the mortgage as did the Sheriff's Deed.  The error was discovered when the lender tried to sell the property.  The lender's attorney brought a declaratory judgment action against the borrower and had the court reform the legal on the mortgage and Sheriff's deed.  Unfortunately this time the vacant land description was used again, but twice so there were two descriptions, just the same one twice.  The lender then sold the property to my company's insured and used the incorrect legal.  What can I say, mistakes happen in title insurance, a lot. Shortly after the closing the insured filed a claim because he had been served with a writ of possession by the borrower claiming the property with the house wasn't covered by the mortgage and hadn't been foreclosed.  I notified the lender and their attorney who went back to court and again asked the court to reform the legal.  The borrower argued the lender had accepted the legal on the mortgage, foreclosed on it and used the same legal in the reformed legal so should now be bound by it, and the court agreed.  The process took about four years and when the court issued the ruling we threw in the towel and paid the insured the amount of insurance under the policy, I think it was about $56k.  Of course the insured had made improvements to the property over the time, nothing extensive, just enough to make it livable since it had been vacant when he bought it and had paid for insurance.  In addition, the value of the property had gone up which also wasn't recoverable.

The moral of the story is, even if you get a title policy that doesn't except the problem from coverage, you probably don't want to buy yourself trouble.  I suggest you listen to your attorney.

The builder’s map was held in the Assessor’s office only for the tax auction many years ago, so the deed does not refer to an Assessor’s Map which would be illegal, but rather to a normal map that was seized and auctioned off by the Assessor using the builder’s map and not the assessors map. 

It sounds like the Assessor has what I would call an unrecorded plat.  A plat prepared for the builder but never submitted to or accepted by the County and therefore the lot number designations do not legally describe the lots.  In my experience conveyances based on an unrecorded plat should describe the property by metes & bounds A/K/A Lot "X" as shown on the unrecorded plat of ABC Subdivision.   One former underwriter in Florida advised:

B. The plat of a subdivision has never been filed for record and is held in the files of a local abstract company.

       If, in fact, the plat is not recorded in the public records, The Fund would not feel justified in authorizing a Fund policy covering the               title, since all of the descriptions in the chain of title which refer to the lot in the subdivision are insufficient without a plat of record             to show the location and boundaries of the property.

 I suspect the title underwriter who insured the Lender/Seller is the underwriter willing to authorize the issuance of a new policy to you without exception for the matter.  You can ask your attorney if this is the case.  This doesn't mean there isn't a defect, only that possibly the underwriter is trying to avoid having to retain counsel to represent the current owner in a suit to fix the problem.  See the story I wrote above.  If you buy the property and then try to sell or refinance and your buyer or their lender refuses to accept a new title policy from the current insurer, another underwriter may not be willing to accept the risk and you won't be able to get title insurance.  Then your deal falls apart.

The plat is currently on file with the Registry of Deeds. It has 100+ lots on it, with a separate house on each 1-4 lots. I looked at the deed history of some of the neighbors. One, had a survey done and the next deed described the metes and bounds and not just the lots as the previous deed referred to. 

So you are saying I would have to check if the plat is legal? And having it be on file originally back in year 1916-1917 with the county would make it so? What if it was put on file with the Registry of Deeds at some later point? 

Or you mean that the company bought the land, surveyed it into lots, but never submitted the surveyed map with the 100+ lots to the county? 

Originally posted by @Eli Molloy:

When you say it’s a lot number on the builder’s map, are you referring to the subdivision plat? 

Yes, the deed references a subdivision plat on a builder’s map that was held at the Assessor’s Office during the tax auction. 

Originally posted by @Mindy Jensen:

@Greg Ghunt, how smoking hot is this deal? Your attorney, who I am assuming you chose for a reason, is telling you they're not comfortable with the description. That concerns me. If it was so easy to fix, the seller would do it. The seller is refusing, which is telling. 

Have you seen the policy the seller is offering? I wouldn't walk before I read it and saw all the exemptions. I'm guessing you'll find more exemptions than you are comfortable with and end up walking.


I will ask for the seller’s policy on the title to look at the exceptions. The seller is Fannie Mae bank and their purchase contract says they are not responsible for paying to fix problems with the title and don’t guarantee it. 

My closing attorney emailed me this: “If the seller will pay for and provide buyer a clean owners policy without issue for the legal description or potential foreclosure problem; nothing needs to be done, so the Buyer would not have grounds to insist on a survey being performed.

This would be fine if the buyer was paying cash and accepted this.

The problem is that there is a loan that we need a lender’s policy for and we would need them to issue. As a colleague of mine indicated, he has never seen it done before. I don’t see how we would get it accomplished either. We would need a title commitment from the sellers title company, we would need to collect the premium and send to them and they would have to issue the policy. Not sure if the lender would allow that either as we would not be able to issue a Closing Protection Letter.”


My impression is that the closing attorney represents his title company to only insure straight forward titles and not interesting making a somewhat complicated case qualify.

Originally posted by @Peter Walther:

I suspect what may have happened is that the legal used on the mortgage was the same one they're proposing to use on the deed into you and that legal does not legally describe the property.  Instead the Assessor's parcel identification number (PIN) was used.  If the PIN was used on the mortgage that's what the foreclosure attorney probably used and that's what was used to convey title to your seller.  If that's what happened, I agree with your attorney, your Seller does not have good title to the property and you will probably have a problem selling or refinancing the property.  Worse yet, the original Borrower could come back and claim (s)he still owns the property and you don't.  (S)he might even be able to gain possession of the house if there is one on the property.

I worked on a title claim with similar facts.  The borrower owned two adjacent parcels, the first was about an acre in size and had a house on it.  The second was also about an acre but was vacant.  When the mortgage was given, the legal description only described the vacant parcel even though both parcels were intended to be encumbered.  When the loan went into default the foreclosure complaint used the same legal as on the mortgage as did the Sheriff's Deed.  The error was discovered when the lender tried to sell the property.  The lender's attorney brought a declaratory judgment action against the borrower and had the court reform the legal on the mortgage and Sheriff's deed.  Unfortunately this time the vacant land description was used again, but twice so there were two descriptions, just the same one twice.  The lender then sold the property to my company's insured and used the incorrect legal.  What can I say, mistakes happen in title insurance, a lot. Shortly after the closing the insured filed a claim because he had been served with a writ of possession by the borrower claiming the property with the house wasn't covered by the mortgage and hadn't been foreclosed.  I notified the lender and their attorney who went back to court and again asked the court to reform the legal.  The borrower argued the lender had accepted the legal on the mortgage, foreclosed on it and used the same legal in the reformed legal so should now be bound by it, and the court agreed.  The process took about four years and when the court issued the ruling we threw in the towel and paid the insured the amount of insurance under the policy, I think it was about $56k.  Of course the insured had made improvements to the property over the time, nothing extensive, just enough to make it livable since it had been vacant when he bought it and had paid for insurance.  In addition, the value of the property had gone up which also wasn't recoverable.

The moral of the story is, even if you get a title policy that doesn't except the problem from coverage, you probably don't want to buy yourself trouble.  I suggest you listen to your attorney.

The builder’s map was held in the Assessor’s office only for the tax auction many years ago, so the deed does not refer to an Assessor’s Map which would be illegal, but rather to a normal map that was seized and auctioned off by the Assessor using the builder’s map and not the assessors map. 

My closing attorney wants to walk away from this Fannie Mae Foreclosure property, get my deposit back and forget it. Essentially, the deed does not describe the property boundaries, but rather refers to a lot number on a builder's map, held in the Assessor's Office at the time of the tax land auction. The map is now in Registry of Deeds and the deed has not been updated with the new location of the builder's map with property lot. My closing attorney has his own title company that he works with exclusively. He says this description makes it sound like the Assessor's Map is used as a description which is illegal and won't transfer ownership. Here is what the closing attorney wrote me, "Our title exam revealed there are serious title issues with this property. I had our title insurance company take a second look and they confirmed the property is not insurable..This could potentially be cleared through the land court, but it would be a very lengthy and costly process..Our office requested that seller have a land survey performed that would result in the language in the deed being formalized and corrected so you would not run into any issues in the future.The seller is not willing to do this because the seller's title insurance company (which is one that we do not use) is stating that they will issue clean title insurance policies to you. You can choose to purchase the property, however our office cannot be involved as the closing attorney because we are not comfortable with the title on this property as it currently stands. I am also not sure if your lender will accept the title insurance policies issued through the seller and not through their closing attorney office. If you are still planning to pursue purchasing this property, then that question would need to be presented to the lender. We are required to follow the direction of our title insurance companies and the way the deed is written is very much out of the ordinary. There is also a potential issue with the foreclosure that we did not have a chance to thoroughly explore yet because we could not get beyond this first obstacle. I will also be letting your mortgage originator know that our office cannot serve as the closing attorney on this property given the state of the title.."

So if I switch to a different title company that agrees to insure this title, when I try to sell the house, the buyer may be denied title insurance and back out. Do I live with this and try to correct this through a "quiet title" motion or some deed correction on my own cost which might be $5,000+ and take more than six months? I would not want to live with anxiety of not having my property boundaries written into the deed, although that is possibly correctable by surveying the lot it refers to, and most importantly having problems selling and refinancing.