All Forum Posts by: Gin Zhuang

Also, do I need to file 1099NEC to California where I live and Georgia where the rental is at? Thanks! 

Hi everyone, 

I want to issue 1099 to my contractor to be on the safe side. 

1. what 1099 should I issue to them? Should it be 1099-NEC? If not, what form? Do I need to submit 1099-NEC to IRS? 

2. If the contractor used subcontractor for parts of the work, do I need to give the 1099 NEC to all the subcontractors too? Or the contractor will take care of giving these forms to the subcontractors? 

3. I found my contractor is registered as a foreign profit corporation in North Carolina. They say the reason that they are called foreign profit corporation is because they originally founded in NC but now they operate in Georgia. They do not need any other form other than 1099-NEC. Is this true? Should I still issue 1099? Other than 1099, any other form should I give to them? 

Thanks,

Jade

Hi everyone, 

I am trying to do tax myself but not sure how to find the land and improvement value of my Atlanta property. I tried to look it on the tax bill and appraisal but did not see it. Could I find this information somewhere if I do not plan to use a professional to calculate this? 

Thanks,

Gin 

As the title says, I have no idea how to post in the local real estate forums. I created a new post but under post to I could not find any local real estate forums, such as Chicago, San Francisco, etc. I tried different accounts and different browsers (safari and chrome) both on laptop and iphone. Nothing works. Any suggestions about how to post in local real estate forums? 

Thanks,

Jin

Hi Jon, 

Thank you for the input! This is helpful. That is what I believe so. But I could not found any text to support it. However, I believe that I found it in 1946.2. 

(A) (i) Intent to occupy the residential real property by the owner or their spouse, domestic partner, children, grandchildren, parents, or grandparents.

(ii) For leases entered into on or after July 1, 2020, clause (i) shall apply only if the tenant agrees, in writing, to the termination, or if a provision of the lease allows the owner to terminate the lease if the owner, or their spouse, domestic partner, children, grandchildren, parents, or grandparents, unilaterally decides to occupy the residential real property. Addition of a provision allowing the owner to terminate the lease as described in this clause to a new or renewed rental agreement or fixed-term lease constitutes a similar provision for the purposes of subparagraph (E) of paragraph (1).

(E) The tenant had a written lease that terminated on or after January 1, 2020, and after a written request or demand from the owner, the tenant has refused to execute a written extension or renewal of the lease for an additional term of similar duration with similar provisions, provided that those terms do not violate this section or any other provision of law.

It seems like I can sign a new lease with them to add in the owner move in termination clause. They can either agree. Then I can move in and move them out based on 1946A(ii). If they do not agree and do not sign, I can move them out based on 1946 E. 

My question is that I do not intend to sign a new lease with them when I become the owner. I could not find any text to support evicting the tenants as a new owner. In this case, I can only sign a new lease and then move them out. It seems pretty redundant. Do you see any text supporting a new owner move in eviction to be justified? 

Thanks,

Jin  

Hi everyone,

I have a quick question about how to the current sentence in CA rent control.

“NO-FAULT” JUST CAUSES

1. Intent by the owner or owner-relative to occupy the unit. This includes the owner’s spouse, domestic partner, children, grandchildren, parents, or grandparents only. For leases entered into on or after July 1 2020, the owner would only be permitted to occupy the unit, if the renter agrees in writing to the lease termination or the lease includes a provision providing for lease termination based on owner or owner-relative occupancy;

I am under contract with a duplex. I want to move into a unit. It is currently occupied by a family who has been living there since 2007. Their lease does not have a provision for lease termination. Could I remove them based on the above no fault just cause? What does the highlighted sentence mean?  Their old lease was signed in 2007. If I take over the property, does it mean that our lease is entered in 2021? Based on the bold sentence, I can not move them out unless they agree? Or even though I am the new owner, since the original lease started in 2007, I can still remove them based on owner move in? Any insight would be greatly appreciated!