Hopefully you can help me undertstand something in regards to the 4 unit rule. Here is my scenario:
1) Primary Home - $300K mortgage
2) Investment Home - $100k mortgage
3) Investment Home - $100k mortgage
4) Investment Home - $100k mortgage
If I get a 5th property which is not 1-4 units that will be at a higher rate. After I own 5 what happens if I sell my primary home and want to get a mortgage on a bigger home in the future?
Would it be my fifth mortgage and thus be at a higher than average rate then conventional financing even though it is owner occupied?
I am trying not to screw myself as I do plan to upgrade homes in 2-3 yrs. How can I avoid this scenario??
If I was to purchase that fifth house in the scenario above using a commercial loan would it count against my fannie mae count? In other words would they look at it as 4 conventional financed homes and one commercial mortgaged home? If so would I then be able to sell my house and purchase another under conventional financing rules?
Appreciate any thoughts.