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All Forum Posts by: David Sabine

David Sabine has started 4 posts and replied 12 times.

Originally posted by @Account Closed:

Several reasons:

1. the bank does not want to reward the borrower by allowing him to get the property at a discount. ie the the bank bids 50k and the borrower bids 55k, then the borrower gets the property for less than the original balance owed.

2. most loans have been sold so that they (the lender) have a contractual servicing agreement to bid the balance.

3. many loans have pmi so that the lender gets paid in full. if they bid less, then pmi pays less.

4. the many states have laws that require the lender to bid market, since market is hard to define in a foreclosure, they bid the balance to stay safe.

5. left hand right hand. the legal team does not always get the asset management team on board until after the sale.

6. many states have right to redeem the property, a lower bid means that they can redeem for less.

7.you never know if someone will step up and pay.

8. accounting rules for banks and potential losses are complicated but in general, a lower bid is usually not good for the bank where as a REO can be "fudged".

9. accountability, banks are owned by shareholders, selling below market would be a breach of fiduciary duty to the shareholders. I know, you think that they lose more money but the issue is sticking to the process to avoid the appearance  

10. as a former asset manager, we actually averaged 103% above the balanced owed on our REOs so do not assume that the value is going to be less than the loan, marketing time is critical.

the list goes on.

 Nicolas,

Thanks for the in dept explanation. Your explanation makes clear why the bank does or has an obligation to bid. You answered questions that I didn't even know I had yet. Love BP! 

Originally posted by @Wayne Brooks:

@David Sabine No.  If the bank is owed $70k, and they bid $70k at the auction, they don't "pay" anyone.  They would be paying themselves, since They are the ones owed the money, and bringing the action.  It's referred to as a "credit bid".  In these cases no one bid a satisfactory amount, so the bank"takes the property" for their credit bid amount, then sells it to get their money back.

 Thanks for the reply Wayne! That was what I was missing and that makes perfect sense.

you said you don't understand my reference to $140k and the bank liability.

Here's what I mean: If I as the borrower default on my loan owing $70k and now the bank/plaintiff bids at the foreclosure auction $70k (what's owed) aren't they now out $140k? Three bank now has to now write a check for $70k + $100k they originally paid the seller - the $30k that was paid back to the bank prior to defaulting in the loan leaving $140k.

What am I missing? Of the approximately 50 or so properties that were most recently sold, only about 5 weren't purchased by the plaintiff. The vast majority of the properties, that had anyone bid against the bank, were run up to CLOSE TO the "appraised" value (yes I know that isn't a reliable number) but this is where they ended.

Thanks!

My question is, why do, at least from what I’ve seen here in Ohio, Hamilton County, do most of the foreclosure sales end up with the plaintiff purchasing at what is owed?

What am I missing? Please point out what I have wrong because it seems like I have to have SOMETHING WRONG! Here is the scenario as I understand/see it.

  1. Jane Seller has a house and puts on the market for $100k
  2. John investor get financed by his bank and purchases the house with 20% down and $80 mortgage.
  3. John Investor defaults on loan 5 years in and property is foreclosed.and balance of principal is ~ $70K
  4. Foreclosure AUCTION. Seller bids what is owed on the property???
    1. HOW DOES THIS MAKE SENSE???

Am I misunderstanding what the sheriff’s auctioneer stated? That for the most part, the plaintiff will win the bidding because they are going to bid up to what is owed. If that is the case, doesn’t the bank now have a liability of $140K for a property that originally sold for $100K???

Actual case:

Hamilton County Ohio:

Case: A1204637Plaintiff: Bank of America

Appraised at: $168K

Min bid: $112K

Plaintiff (WINNING) bid: $112K

What am I missing?

So I'm getting deeper with this potential rental and numbers are looking OK without specifics yet from the seller so, I'm looking to the BP experts on specific questions I need to ask of the seller. Below is what I've come up with so far. Looking for suggestions on what else to ask, WHAT I MAYBE SHOULDN'T ASK, and suggestions on what to elaborate on. Thanks in advance to any and all responses!

  1. Price? ??? She is still checking comps. I believe she is looking for ~$49K
  2. Why are you selling? Retiring and just doesn’t want to mess with it after relocating to AZ.
  3. Are there any known issues with the property? No
  4. Neighborhood grade? C
  5. Any known issues with neighbors? ???
  6. Is the property under lease? YES
    1. How long has the resident been at the property? 18 months
    2. Rent? $600
    3. What remains on the lease? ???
    4. Documentation? Yes
    5. Any known issues with the tenant? No, good tenant.
  7. Age of property? 1966
  8. Type of structure? Brick, multi-level condo/apartments
  9. Parking (on/off-street, car port, garage, lot, gated)? Assigned parking space/single
  10. What s included?
    1. Age of these items (roof, A/C, furnace, appliances)? Appliances
  11. What isn’t?
  12. Last capital expenditure and do you have documentation? ???
  13. Condo (yes/no)? If yes,
    1. HOA fees? $196 p/month
    2. Last assessment? Amount? Approx 3 years ago. $200 for retaining wall. Assessment insurance available through HOA approximately $5 per yer
    3. Known issues/problems with HOA? Sometimes slow but they do get work done. Sometimes just have to keep on them.
    4. Investor restrictions/rental restrictions? None
    5. Percentage of renters to owners? ????
  14. How long has the property been on the market for? Not on the market yet. Seller was just starting to think of selling.
  15. Are there any covenants, caveats or any regulatory restrictions on the property? ???
  16. What owner responsible costs are there aside from the normal mortgage and taxes, i.e., sewer, electric, garbage?
    1. Sewer?
    2. Garbage?
    3. Electric?
    4. Water?
  17. If a condo, is:
    1. Separate meters?
    2. Costs not covered by HOA?

Thanks again to ALL!!

Originally posted by @Chris Ramos:

Howdy -

I think @Luc Boiron did a good job answering the question about the 3 year term. When I reference a mortgage lender or broker what I mean is traditional financing and yes they would hold the note. A loan "Broker" can shop the loans to other lenders as well as the company they work for = more options. The reason to do this is to get a base line so you'll have something to compare against when creating a deal with the seller.

One path to explore is to see what her sales price is (if it's fair and agreeable) then subtract that amount from her balance on her mortgage and that would be her gross equity. If that amount is an amount that your comfortable paying then pay her that amount as the down payment (which is all that she would get paid anyways)  doing a wrap around mortgage for the balance if her current terms are favorable.

Or you could do it the same way but with seller financing for the balance on the mortgage after you paid her the down payment. Either option you chose you will need more understanding so you avoid the pitfalls that can come with either. I'd start with speaking to a lender and also getting her asking price and as much details about her existing mortgage as possible. Sellers are normally not likely to share that info, but if this is a friend then they most likely will be more open. I typically approach the seller with the conversation that the more info I have then the better I can construct a deal that is potentially workable for all involved. This saves a lot of time on speculation.

When the seller's have little to no equity it's easier to get them to do seller financing, Especially if you help them net more money up front than they would have gotten doing a traditional realtor involved transaction.

 Chris,

Thanks Again....PERFECT! I understand exactly what you gave me. I do think she is motivated, I'm pretty sure she said flat out, that she is close to break even but a little upside down. She also expressed that the fact we could possibly do something without the agent or associated costs would be a big relief for her. 

Like I said originally, this feels like it fell into my lap with a big bow on it. I know I still have to get detailed numbers but if hey work, I want to do right by her, the current tenant and if there is a decent cash flow, for a FIRST DEAL, I'd LOVE IT!

Thanks!

Originally posted by @Luc Boiron:

@David Sabine If the loan is for a 3 year term, the amortization doesn't need to be for 3 years. For example, you could pay interest only for 3 years. Then, you would owe the full balance as a balloon payment in 3 years. At this point, you would refinance with a traditional lender and pay our the owner.

 OK Luc....So here is another follow-up, hope you don't mind.

If she would agree to terms along those lines, GREAT!! No agent, no commissions, etc. 

Now SHE HOLDS the note, how is that typically handled? Is the note held in escrow somehow, is it just in legal documentation filed with he county??? This is where I'm still a little lost how SELLER FINANCING WORKS to protect the investor.

Thanks ALL in ADVANCE!

Luc.....GOT IT! Thanks for the explanation. 

Originally posted by @Jay J.:

A few answers to your questions...
1. You could get a pre-approval letter but you need to find out how much she'll be asking for. That will give you a better idea of your actual debt obligations, but you'll probably need a down payment if you don't plan on living in the property.

2. If she's willing to carry your note, well, she could hold the 'note'. I'd contact someone that has experience with this if this is the route you take.( laws have recently (relatively speaking) changed)

Now, my questions for you..

What is the condition of the property?? No rehab is needed? nothing for CapEx?

side note, I'm local to cincinnati and I'm curious where you'd find a property that has a city skyline view where the owner would sell for less than  +200k..  (not saying they don't exists, but..)

 Jay,

Thanks again. In answer to your questions:

1. I am planning on getting pre-approved just so I know where I stand. If just looking at FICO my score s considered excellent but I'd rather not put 25-30% down if I can avoid it and since this would be a rental, that's where I think it would be.

2. At first glance, YES she may be willing to carry the note based on me having told her, that we could make it work in both our favors. She did say, she is very motivated to avoid an agent because she may be SLIGHTLY upside down but said she's getting close to not being and paying a broker is what she said she wants to avoid.

  1. With that, would I potentially offer her cash up front with a lower interest say maybe $5K and she carry at a reasonable APR for whatever term. She's 65 getting ready to retire to Florida so it's not like she'd want to do 30 yr.

3. From what I could tell, she had lots of pics on her phone of the area around the property and based on her info with the HOA, NO CAP-EX required to start. The property looks to be in good condition. She said if we agree on things she could arrange for me to see the inside of the property.

4. Side note....Sean Cole is correct, Price Hill area. Comps seem to be in-line. The  conversation she and I had went so quick that I wasn't quite prepared for all the info she gave. I do still need to get details and I asked her to think about what she's looking to get, her big thing is no agent and she doesn't want to owe. Iknow I still need to analyze but IT FEELS GOOD FOR NOW UNTIL THE NUMBERS DON'T WORK.

Chris Ramos and everyone that ha already replied....THANKS!! Gotta love BP!

Chris, again....I'm still in my self education phase so can you elaborate? 

  1. You said to seek a mortgage lender/broker with preferably in house underwriting to shop it around. I understand that I think...
    1. ...then the mortgage company would hold the note like any other traditional mortgge, yes?
    2. From what I've been hearing/reading/research REI property through traditional lenders will usually require 25-30 percent down?
  2. You said if I the owner and I did make the numbers work and we decide owner financing, "Also for example if you set this up with seller financing to pay the seller off in 3 years then you'll want to be sure your heading down a path to be ready in 3 years."
    1. Three years SEEMS short to me??? If I did three years, I'd be seriously cash flow negative.....yes it would be paid off in three years but what am I missing? 

Thanks again Chris!