Quote from @Sandy Sawyer:
I just recently discovered Chris Lopez & the equity analysis for deciding how to make my money work the most efficiently. Since I always kind of viewed depreciation as sort of a 2-edged sword, or a temporary blessing from the IRS, I’m still trying to wrap my mind around why this gets added in, since it gets recaptured upon selling the property. Can someone please clarify this for me? We’re small potatoes here in Houston but self-managing several SFRs. I have yet to experience selling one of our properties.
Thanks
You have the right idea about depreciation. Think about it this way: Some things you spend money on, you consider them an expense, and write them off as an expense against income on the year they were bought.
But some items you depreciate over time. And property is one of those things. A lot more goes into it than this (i.e, calculating what % is land vs property) but if you buy a $300k house and it's deprecated over 30 years then you consider $10k of that home expense to occur every year.
But that also means that if you sell the property for $400k in 5 years, you didn't just make $100k (since your 'cost' is no longer $300k). You made $150k since over time you've lowered your cost basis by $50k by depreciating $10k/year.
You're 100% right in it's just a temporary blessing. All that "RE is great, you can depreciate it and not pay taxes" finally comes back when you sell.
Well, sort of. That's where a 1031 comes in. If you sell the house for $400k, and buy another house for $500k, you can roll that $150k of gain into the new house...
But again, the flips side (temporary blessing) is your cost basis on that new house isn't $500k -- it's only $350k. Which means if you sell the $500k house for $600k a year later, you didn't just make $100k, you made $250k.
You can see where this goes. It's why I don't 1031 (after 15 years, 2000+ units, and $300m of transactions). I'd rather just take my lumps and pay the tax as I don't think tax rates are going down anytime soon so my capital gains tax on my profits are about as good as I'm ever going to be expected to pay.
I know plenty of people that have a $1m property that has almost no basis anymore. They may have a $800k loan on it. They may be offered $1.1m for the property but they can't sell. Why? Because after paying off the loan, they'll be left with $300k. But the IRS considers that they've made $1.1m of taxable income. So they could be in a spot where selling is impossible as the proceeds will be less than the taxes due.
(which is why 1031 advocates basically talk about refi-till-you-die. Where if you do this till you die, you can leave the portfolio behind at a stepped basis)
Hopefully this didn't cause more confusion :)
And I hope no one reading this takes this as actionable advice. I'm just some dude figuring this stuff out on his own.