Recently my wife and I bought an investment property from an estate. This now means we own two homes, our primary residence and the investment property. Regarding the new investment property, initially, we were going to buy, renovate, rent, and hold. We soon realized that the holding costs were too because of the private money loan we are currently in, so we decided that we were going to flip the property.
But during the renovation process, I was connected with a mortgage lender who was interested in refinancing the investment property. I was a bit hesitant and thought the deal was too good to be true because I was 15 months post bankruptcy. Any discussions I have had with any lenders, they all mentioned that I would have to wait 2 years after the discharge to qualify for a mortgage. This particular lender initially agreed to do a 5 year ARM, and the bankruptcy wasn't an issue. They ended up declining the loan because they said my debt to income was too high, stating it was at 60%. Come to find out, the lender wouldn't count rental income on one of my properties because it wasn't reflected on my 2016 tax return. But the reality was that the construction for the rental property was in process in 2016, and it began producing income in January 2017. I was able to show the lease agreement and proof of income on the property, and they still wouldn't take the income into account.
In the end, I'm a W-2 earner with a good paying full time job and have two properties. The rental income currently covers the debt service on both properties (one of which is my primary residence).
Is this a typical practice, where rental income is not considered because it isn't on a prior year's tax return?