I apologize in advance if the answers to my questions are posted somewhere else.
I'm currently buying single family homes and renting them out. My plan has been to continue buying SFHs until I can generate enough excess cash flow to buy the asset types (large multifamily/commercial) I truly enjoy. In my continuing search for a commercial SFH portfolio loan, I ran across First Key Lending. They are the other big name in SFH rental financing along with B2R. They offer a product that I think may help me accelerate my plans, the Fix and Flip Loan Product. It's a purchase and renovation loan for 1-4 unit properties. The obligor is a LLC and there is no standard DTI or rental history guidelines. I would not flip the property, but add value and cash out/ReFi with a traditional lender. I'm a commercial real estate analyst for a bank and yet I could not wrap my head around the one real requirement they have: "Up to 85% LTC / 65% ARV." I understand what LTC is, but can't logically map out the ARV part. Here is the scenario I ran in my head:
-2 Flat
-$300,000 purchase price
-$50,000 in renovations
So my total costs are $350,000 and my loan amount would be $297,500 (85% LTC). To reach a 65% ARV, the as complete/stabilized value of the property would have to appraise out at $538,461. An increased value of $238,461 off of $50,000 in renovations! So based off my initial cash equity contribution of 15% or $52,500, a 354% return on cash (ignoring all else). With the way I'm looking at it this can't be possible for multiple reasons. Could someone please help me wrap my head around this?