Trying to think ahead about the following scenario:
1. I sell a house that has underlying mortgage still on a land contract, which put me at risk for a due on sale trigger (understand the risks of note being called from many prior posts).
2. When I go to purchase a second or third property and need to show income against underlying mortgage of property sold on land contract, I will only have a land contract to show income, not a rental agreement.
3. Will that cause concern to the lender? Trying to get any input from people having done this, and also perspective from a lenders point of view.
4. Thinking that if I get loan for new property from a different bank, might be OK. But if I try to get another loan from the same bank that gave me the first mortgage, wonder if someone in underwriting in process of verifying income against mortgage might raise a flag: 'why does one of our mortgages have a land contract against it...'
Just trying to prep for this scenario...
thanks
Mike