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All Forum Posts by: Arnold Finkelstein

Arnold Finkelstein has started 30 posts and replied 62 times.

I own a piece of land on which someone else has their mobile home.  I wish to make it official and get them on a lease.  Are there any lease examples I can use?  I'd like them to be responsible for any upkeep there might be.

How does one find comparables?

I'm starting to think it might not be worth it.  If I have to pay for maintenance and insurance, it's hard to imagine how much would be left over every month.  You can rent a whole house in Talladega for $900.  I don't see a patch of land renting for very much.

It is appropriate that you replied, Denise, because the lot in question is a tax deed that I'm going to seek ejectment for.  This lot already has someone's mobile home on it, and someone (not the prior owner of the parcel) is living in it.  

At present, I don't know if they are on city sewer, although I suspect they are as it's a reasonably congested part of Talladega.  Nor do I know anything else about the drainage, etc.  I'm just trying to determine if owning a lot and renting it out to someone's mobile home is worth it.  

Am I required to have some kind of insurance as the owner of a lot that someone is living on in their own mobile home?  I can't imagine I can charge very much for the lot.

I have the opportunity to own a couple of parcels that can host mobile homes.  One of them, in Talladega, already has a mobile home on it.  

However, I don't know if it's worth it.  What are the pros and cons of owning land someone else rents for their mobile home?  

Also, as my parcel is contiguous with the parcel on which the home sits, it becomes a boundary line dispute and therefore on the 10 year clock.  I have inferred that "boundary line dispute" doesn't necessarily mean a dispute over the location of a property line, but is a term that means (or can mean) a dispute over a parcel contiguous with the adverse possession claimant.

Aargh..that part I didn't want to hear, but I'm grateful to know it, thank you!  This affects a bunch of tax deeds I own.

I have a tax deed for a parcel next door to a home on which the homeowners have built a garage.  Although the owner of the house is new, having just bought it, and the garage is also new, it's clear that prior owners of the house have used my parcel as their yard over the years, no doubt meeting the rules of adverse possession.

Although the current owner only just move into the house and cannot meet either the 10/20 year statues, can they claim that the use of the yard for 20 years by one or more prior owners constitutes a valid adverse possession that is now handed down to the current owners?

This is awesome, thank you.

Quote from @Greg Parker:

@Denise Evans is the legal guru and can answer that.


 That would be awesome!

I understand all the requirements/rules of Adverse Possession in Alabama, but I'm not entirely clear on the required length of time.  I have inferred that there are two clocks.  Ten years if the party with adverse possession has some color of title and/or has been paying taxes on the parcel, and twenty years if just occupying land.  I have scoured my 3 year old copy of Denise Evans' Alabama Tax Sales, but I'm not seeing it there.